11 February– Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)
• 1929 – The Lateran Treaty was signed, making Vatican City an independent state.
• 1979 – Ayatollah Khomeini returned to Iran, leading to the Iranian Islamic Revolution.
• 1990 – Nelson Mandela was released from prison after 27 years in South Africa.
Today Latest Post Current Affairs
11 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test
India Ranks Second Globally in Enterprise AI Usage: Zscaler ThreatLabz Report
Q1. According to the Zscaler ThreatLabz 2026 AI Security Report, what is India’s global rank in enterprise AI and machine learning usage?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer: Second
Explanation: The report ranks India second globally in enterprise AI/ML transactions, with only the United States ahead of it.
Q2. Which platform’s data was analysed to assess global AI and machine learning transactions?
(a) Google Cloud Platform
(b) Microsoft Azure
(c) Zscaler Zero Trust Exchange
(d) Amazon Web Services
Answer: Zscaler Zero Trust Exchange
Explanation: The study analysed nearly one trillion AI/ML transactions processed on the Zscaler Zero Trust Exchange platform.
Q3. India accounts for approximately what percentage of total AI activity in the Asia-Pacific region?
(a) 32.5%
(b) 38.4%
(c) 46.2%
(d) 54.7%
Answer: 46.2%
Explanation: Indian enterprises contributed 46.2 per cent of all AI activity in the Asia-Pacific region between June and December 2025.
Q4. Which sector recorded the highest AI/ML transaction volume in India?
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Services
(c) Finance & Insurance
(d) Technology and Communication
Answer: Technology and Communication
Explanation: The Technology and Communication sector led AI adoption with 31.3 billion AI/ML transactions, the highest among all sectors.
Q5. In the context of the report, what does “agentic AI” refer to?
(a) AI systems used only for data analysis
(b) AI models controlled entirely by humans
(c) Autonomous AI systems capable of independent planning and action
(d) AI used exclusively in defence applications
Answer: Autonomous AI systems capable of independent planning and action
Explanation: Agentic AI refers to advanced autonomous systems that can plan and act independently, raising serious security concerns if not properly protected.
India Improves Rank in Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2025
Q1. What is India’s rank in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2025?
(a) 96th
(b) 94th
(c) 91st
(d) 89th
Answer: 91st
Explanation: India climbed five places from 96th to 91st position in the CPI 2025, reflecting a modest improvement in perceived public sector integrity.
Q2. Which organisation releases the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) every year?
(a) World Bank
(b) United Nations Development Programme
(c) Transparency International
(d) World Economic Forum
Answer: Transparency International
Explanation: The Corruption Perceptions Index is an annual report published by Transparency International to assess perceived levels of public sector corruption worldwide.
Q3. What does a higher score on the CPI scale indicate?
(a) Higher level of corruption
(b) Stronger military governance
(c) Better economic growth
(d) Cleaner public sector
Answer: Cleaner public sector
Explanation: The CPI score ranges from 0 to 100, where 0 means highly corrupt and 100 indicates a very clean public sector.
Q4. What was the global average CPI score in 2025, according to the report?
(a) 48
(b) 45
(c) 42
(d) 40
Answer: 42
Explanation: The global average CPI score declined to a historic low of 42, showing that corruption remains a serious global challenge.
Q5. Which country topped the Corruption Perceptions Index 2025 rankings?
(a) Finland
(b) Singapore
(c) New Zealand
(d) Denmark
Answer: Denmark
Explanation: Denmark retained the top position in CPI 2025 with a score of 89, making it the least corrupt country on the index.
Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) and India’s Role in Global Diamond Trade
Q1. What is the primary objective of the Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS)?
(a) To regulate prices of polished diamonds
(b) To prevent the trade in conflict diamonds
(c) To promote diamond mining in developing countries
(d) To tax international diamond trade
Answer: To prevent the trade in conflict diamonds
Explanation: The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme is a global mechanism aimed at stopping the trade of conflict diamonds by allowing trade only among certified participant countries.
Q2. Under the Kimberley Process, trade in rough diamonds is allowed only between which entities?
(a) Any WTO member country
(b) Countries with bilateral trade agreements
(c) Kimberley Process–certified participant countries
(d) Diamond-producing countries only
Answer: Kimberley Process–certified participant countries
Explanation: The KPCS permits trade in rough diamonds exclusively between participant countries that comply with its certification and control requirements.
Q3. Despite not being a diamond producer, why is India significant in the global diamond value chain?
(a) It controls global diamond prices
(b) It imports nearly 40% of global rough diamonds
(c) It hosts most diamond mines
(d) It leads global diamond auctions
Answer: It imports nearly 40% of global rough diamonds
Explanation: India imports around 40 per cent of global rough diamond trade and is the world’s largest cutting and polishing hub, mainly in Surat and Mumbai.
Q4. Which of the following is a major criticism of the Kimberley Process definition of “conflict diamonds”?
(a) It includes environmental damage
(b) It covers all forms of human rights abuse
(c) It focuses only on rebel-financed conflicts
(d) It applies only to African countries
Answer: It focuses only on rebel-financed conflicts
Explanation: The current definition of conflict diamonds under the KP is limited to diamonds used by rebel groups against legitimate governments, excluding state violence and other abuses.
Q5. Which country was banned from exporting rough diamonds in 2013 and readmitted into the Kimberley Process in 2024?
(a) Democratic Republic of Congo
(b) Angola
(c) Sierra Leone
(d) Central African Republic
Answer: Central African Republic
Explanation: The Central African Republic was banned in 2013 and readmitted in 2024, highlighting weaknesses in KP enforcement such as increased smuggling during embargo periods.
Return of Griffon Vultures to Maharashtra Signals Conservation Success
Q1. Which vulture species was recently sighted in Melghat Tiger Reserve, indicating ecological recovery?
(a) White-rumped Vulture
(b) Long-billed Vulture
(c) Himalayan Griffon Vulture
(d) Egyptian Vulture
Answer: Himalayan Griffon Vulture
Explanation: The sighting of a Himalayan Griffon Vulture in Melghat Tiger Reserve marks the return of migratory vultures to an area where they had been locally extinct for nearly a decade.
Q2. What was the primary reason for the sharp decline of vulture populations in Maharashtra by 2004?
(a) Habitat destruction
(b) Climate change
(c) Use of veterinary drugs like diclofenac
(d) Poaching
Answer: Use of veterinary drugs like diclofenac
Explanation: Veterinary use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as diclofenac proved fatal to vultures feeding on treated livestock carcasses, causing a population crash.
Q3. Which organisation partnered with the Maharashtra Forest Department for vulture conservation efforts?
(a) WWF India
(b) Wildlife Institute of India
(c) Bombay Natural History Society
(d) Zoological Survey of India
Answer: Bombay Natural History Society
Explanation: The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) collaborated with the Maharashtra Forest Department on captive breeding, habitat protection and vulture release programmes.
Q4. What does the term “soft release” mean in wildlife conservation?
(a) Immediate release without monitoring
(b) Release only during migration season
(c) Gradual acclimatisation before full release into the wild
(d) Release of injured animals only
Answer: Gradual acclimatisation before full release into the wild
Explanation: Soft release involves keeping animals in an aviary for acclimatisation and providing supplemental feeding before encouraging independent survival in the wild.
Q5. Which technology was used to monitor the movement and survival of released vultures in Melghat?
(a) Radio collars
(b) RFID tags
(c) GSM and satellite transmitters
(d) Drone-based tracking
Answer: GSM and satellite transmitters
Explanation: The vultures were fitted with GSM and satellite transmitters to scientifically track their movement, behaviour and survival after release.
India–France Defence Deal for SCALP Cruise Missiles after Operation Sindoor
Q1. Which missile system is India planning to procure from France following its successful use in Operation Sindoor?
(a) Exocet
(b) Meteor
(c) SCALP
(d) MICA
Answer: SCALP
Explanation: India and France are in advanced talks for procuring SCALP cruise missiles after their successful combat deployment by the Indian Air Force during Operation Sindoor.
Q2. SCALP cruise missiles were launched from which aircraft of the Indian Air Force?
(a) Su-30 MKI
(b) Mirage 2000
(c) Tejas
(d) Rafale
Answer: Rafale
Explanation: SCALP is an air-launched long-range cruise missile integrated with Rafale fighter jets of the Indian Air Force.
Q3. During Operation Sindoor, SCALP missiles were used to target headquarters of which terrorist organisations?
(a) Al-Qaeda and ISIS
(b) Taliban and Haqqani Network
(c) Jaish-e-Mohamed and Lashkar-e-Toiba
(d) Hizbul Mujahideen and Al-Badr
Answer: Jaish-e-Mohamed and Lashkar-e-Toiba
Explanation: SCALP missiles, along with BrahMos, were used in precision strikes against key Jaish-e-Mohamed and Lashkar-e-Toiba infrastructure in Pakistan.
Q4. What type of missile is the Meteor, which India plans to induct along with SCALP?
(a) Surface-to-air missile
(b) Anti-ship missile
(c) Beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile
(d) Ballistic missile
Answer: Beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile
Explanation: Meteor is a BVR air-to-air missile that enhances long-range air combat and air dominance capability of the Rafale platform.
Q5. Which body approves major defence acquisitions such as the SCALP missile deal in India?
(a) Cabinet Committee on Security
(b) Defence Research and Development Organisation
(c) National Security Council
(d) Defence Acquisition Council
Answer: Defence Acquisition Council
Explanation: Major defence procurement proposals are evaluated and approved by the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC).
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