16 January 2026 Current Affairs

16 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

MS Dhoni Appointed Goodwill Ambassador for Pune Grand Tour 2026

Q1. Who has been appointed as the Goodwill Ambassador for the Pune Grand Tour 2026?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) MS Dhoni
(d) Rohit Sharma
Answer: MS Dhoni
Explanation: Former India captain MS Dhoni was appointed Goodwill Ambassador to boost visibility and promote professional cycling in India.

Q2. The Pune Grand Tour 2026 will be held in which city and during which period?
(a) Mumbai, February 10–14
(b) Pune, January 19–23
(c) Bengaluru, March 5–9
(d) Hyderabad, January 25–29
Answer: Pune, January 19–23
Explanation: The five-day international road cycling race will take place in Pune from January 19 to 23, 2026.

Q3. What is the UCI category of the Pune Grand Tour 2026?
(a) UCI World Tour
(b) UCI ProSeries
(c) UCI 1.1 category
(d) UCI 2.2 category
Answer: UCI 2.2 category
Explanation: The event is India’s first-ever UCI 2.2 category Continental Road Cycling Race for men.

Q4. What is the total distance covered in the Pune Grand Tour 2026?
(a) 300 km
(b) 365 km
(c) 400 km
(d) 437 km
Answer: 437 km
Explanation: The race spans 437 km over five stages, covering challenging terrain across the Deccan Plateau and Sahyadri Range.

Q5. How many countries will be represented in the Pune Grand Tour 2026?
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 40
Answer: 35
Explanation: A total of 171 riders from 29 teams representing 35 countries across five continents will participate, making it a truly global event.

US Suspends Immigrant Visa Processing for Citizens of 75 Countries

Q1. From which date has the United States announced the suspension of immigrant visa processing for citizens of 75 countries?
(a) January 1
(b) January 15
(c) January 21
(d) February 1
Answer: January 21
Explanation: The US State Department confirmed that the indefinite suspension of immigrant visa processing will begin from January 21.

Q2. Which category of US visas is affected by the recent suspension decision?
(a) Tourist visas only
(b) Student and business visas
(c) All types of visas
(d) Immigrant visas
Answer: Immigrant visas
Explanation: The suspension applies only to immigrant visas such as family-based and employment-based permanent residency, while non-immigrant visas remain unaffected.

Q3. The US administration has justified the visa suspension mainly on the basis of which immigration principle?
(a) National security threat
(b) Illegal border crossings
(c) Public charge rule
(d) Diplomatic pressure
Answer: Public charge rule
Explanation: Under the “public charge” rule, visa applicants can be denied if they are likely to become dependent on government welfare, which the US cited as the main concern.

Q4. Which of the following countries is included in the list, making the decision controversial due to its economic stability?
(a) India
(b) Thailand
(c) Japan
(d) South Korea
Answer: Thailand
Explanation: Thailand’s inclusion surprised analysts as it is considered politically stable and economically viable, prompting it to seek clarification from US officials.

Q5. Why has India been excluded from the US immigrant visa suspension list?
(a) Strong diplomatic ties with the US
(b) High tourist inflow from India
(c) Low welfare dependency among Indian migrants
(d) Strategic military cooperation
Answer: Low welfare dependency among Indian migrants
Explanation: India was excluded due to strong documentation standards, high-skilled migration patterns, and minimal reliance on public benefits by Indian immigrants—an important exam-relevant point.

Leadership Change in Yemen’s Internationally Recognised Government

Q1. Who resigned from the post of Prime Minister of Yemen, leading to the recent leadership change?
(a) Abdrabbuh Mansur Hadi
(b) Shaya Mohsen Zindani
(c) Salem bin Breik
(d) Rashad al-Alimi
Answer: Salem bin Breik
Explanation: Salem bin Breik submitted his resignation, which was accepted by Yemen’s Presidential Leadership Council.

Q2. Who has been appointed as the new Prime Minister of Yemen?
(a) Rashad al-Alimi
(b) Shaya Mohsen Zindani
(c) Aidarus al-Zoubaidi
(d) Mohammed Ali al-Houthi
Answer: Shaya Mohsen Zindani
Explanation: Foreign Minister Shaya Mohsen Zindani was appointed as the new prime minister and tasked with forming a new cabinet.

Q3. Which body approved the resignation of Salem bin Breik and appointed the new prime minister?
(a) Yemeni Parliament
(b) United Nations
(c) Presidential Leadership Council (PLC)
(d) Supreme Political Council
Answer: Presidential Leadership Council (PLC)
Explanation: Yemen is currently governed by the Presidential Leadership Council, which approved the leadership transition.

Q4. The Southern Transitional Council (STC), mentioned in the news, primarily seeks what objective?
(a) Control of northern Yemen
(b) Alliance with the Houthi movement
(c) Autonomy or independence for southern Yemen
(d) Formation of a federal government
Answer: Autonomy or independence for southern Yemen
Explanation: The UAE-backed Southern Transitional Council aims for greater autonomy or independence for southern Yemen.

Q5. The Houthi movement, a key party in Yemen’s conflict, is backed by which country?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) United Arab Emirates
(c) United States
(d) Iran
Answer: Iran
Explanation: The Houthi movement is supported by Iran and controls large parts of northern Yemen, making this an important exam-relevant fact.

Fire Mishap in Konda Reddi Tribal Hamlet in Andhra Pradesh

Q1. In which village did the fire mishap destroy houses belonging to the Konda Reddi tribal community?
(a) Rampachodavaram
(b) Sarlanka
(c) Paderu
(d) Maredumilli
Answer: Sarlanka
Explanation: The fire incident occurred in Sarlanka village of Prathipadu mandal, affecting houses of the Konda Reddi tribal community.

Q2. How many thatched houses were destroyed in the fire mishap?
(a) 25
(b) 32
(c) 38
(d) 45
Answer: 38
Explanation: At least 38 thatched houses were completely gutted in the fire, leaving several families homeless.

Q3. What was the suspected cause of the fire according to local residents?
(a) Cooking fire
(b) Forest fire
(c) Gas cylinder blast
(d) Electrical short circuit
Answer: Electrical short circuit
Explanation: Villagers reported that the fire likely broke out due to a short circuit in the village electricity supply.

Q4. The Konda Reddi tribal community is classified under which category in India?
(a) Scheduled Tribe
(b) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG)
(c) Denotified Tribe
(d) Nomadic Tribe
Answer: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG)
Explanation: Konda Reddi is recognised as a PVTG in Andhra Pradesh, making them especially vulnerable to disasters and livelihood shocks.

Q5. Which major festival was approaching at the time of the incident, due to which many residents were away from the village?
(a) Ugadi
(b) Diwali
(c) Sankranti
(d) Pongal
Answer: Sankranti
Explanation: The incident occurred ahead of Sankranti, a major harvest festival, when many villagers had gone to attend the weekly shandy.

Karnataka Bank Wins Top Honours at IBA Banking Technology Awards

Q1. Which bank won the ‘Best Fintech & DPI Adoption’ award at the Indian Banks’ Association Banking Technology Awards?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) HDFC Bank
(c) Karnataka Bank
(d) ICICI Bank
Answer: Karnataka Bank
Explanation: Karnataka Bank secured the top honour in the ‘Best Fintech & DPI Adoption’ category for its effective use of fintech solutions and digital public infrastructure.

Q2. The ‘Best Fintech & DPI Adoption’ award mainly recognises excellence in which area?
(a) Branch expansion
(b) Credit growth
(c) Integration of fintech and digital public infrastructure
(d) Rural lending performance
Answer: Integration of fintech and digital public infrastructure
Explanation: The award recognises banks that successfully integrate fintech solutions with India’s Digital Public Infrastructure to improve service delivery, security, and scalability.

Q3. In which category was Karnataka Bank adjudged runner-up at the IBA Banking Technology Awards?
(a) Best Technology Bank
(b) Best Digital Sales
(c) Best Tech Talent
(d) Best Digital Financial Inclusion
Answer: Best Tech Talent
Explanation: Karnataka Bank was named runner-up in the ‘Best Tech Talent’ category, highlighting its focus on developing and retaining skilled technology professionals.

Q4. Which of the following platforms is part of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)?
(a) SWIFT
(b) Aadhaar
(c) VISA
(d) PayPal
Answer: Aadhaar
Explanation: Digital Public Infrastructure in India includes platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, and DigiLocker, which support digital governance and financial services.

Q5. Who is the Managing Director and CEO of Karnataka Bank who commented on the awards?
(a) Raghuram Rajan
(b) Shaktikanta Das
(c) Raghavendra S Bhat
(d) Sashidhar Jagdishan
Answer: Raghavendra S Bhat
Explanation: Raghavendra S Bhat, MD and CEO of Karnataka Bank, stated that the awards reflect the combined efforts of the bank’s IT and business teams in driving digital innovation.

India Observes 10th Defence Forces Veterans’ Day on 14 January 2026

Q1. On which date is Defence Forces Veterans’ Day observed in India every year?
(a) 10 January
(b) 14 January
(c) 15 August
(d) 26 January
Answer: 14 January
Explanation: Defence Forces Veterans’ Day is observed annually on 14 January to honour the service and sacrifice of India’s ex-servicemen.

Q2. The main national ceremony of the 10th Defence Forces Veterans’ Day was held at which place?
(a) National War Memorial, New Delhi
(b) Red Fort, Delhi
(c) Manekshaw Centre, Delhi Cantt
(d) Vigyan Bhavan, New Delhi
Answer: Manekshaw Centre, Delhi Cantt
Explanation: The central ceremony was organised at the Manekshaw Centre in Delhi Cantt, with participation from around 2,500 veterans from Delhi and NCR.

Q3. Defence Forces Veterans’ Day commemorates the retirement of which Indian military leader?
(a) General Bipin Rawat
(b) Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw
(c) Field Marshal KM Cariappa
(d) General KS Thimayya
Answer: Field Marshal KM Cariappa
Explanation: The day marks the retirement of Field Marshal KM Cariappa, India’s first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army, who retired on 14 January 1953.

Q4. Operation Pawan, mentioned during the Veterans’ Day event, was associated with which mission?
(a) Counter-insurgency operations in Northeast India
(b) UN peacekeeping mission in Africa
(c) Indian Peacekeeping Force deployment in Sri Lanka
(d) Kargil conflict operations
Answer: Indian Peacekeeping Force deployment in Sri Lanka
Explanation: Operation Pawan refers to the Indian Peacekeeping Force (IPKF) mission in Sri Lanka, where Indian soldiers made significant sacrifices.

Q5. Which government initiative aims to ensure uniform pension for veterans of the same rank and service length?
(a) Agnipath Scheme
(b) Atma Nirbhar Bharat
(c) One Rank One Pension
(d) National Pension System
Answer: One Rank One Pension
Explanation: One Rank One Pension (OROP) ensures that soldiers retiring with the same rank and years of service receive equal pension, regardless of retirement date.

India Registers New High-Yielding Synthetic Cattle Breeds, Total Livestock Breeds Reach 246

Q1. Which two synthetic cattle breeds were recently registered in India for high milk productivity?
(a) Gir and Sahiwal
(b) Karan Fries and Vrindavani
(c) Tharparkar and Hariana
(d) Jersey and Brown Swiss
Answer: Karan Fries and Vrindavani
Explanation: Karan Fries and Vrindavani are the two newly registered synthetic cattle breeds capable of producing over 3,000 kg of milk in a 10-month lactation period.

Q2. The Karan Fries cattle breed was developed by which institute?
(a) Indian Veterinary Research Institute, Uttar Pradesh
(b) Central Institute for Research on Cattle, Meerut
(c) National Dairy Research Institute, Haryana
(d) National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources, Karnal
Answer: National Dairy Research Institute, Haryana
Explanation: Karan Fries was developed by the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) by cross-breeding Tharparkar cows with Holstein-Friesian bulls.

Q3. Vrindavani cattle breed was developed by cross-breeding indigenous Hariana cattle with which exotic breeds?
(a) Jersey and Red Sindhi
(b) Holstein-Friesian, Brown Swiss and Jersey
(c) Brown Swiss and Sahiwal
(d) Holstein-Friesian and Gir
Answer: Holstein-Friesian, Brown Swiss and Jersey
Explanation: Vrindavani cattle were developed by IVRI using multiple exotic breeds along with indigenous Hariana cattle to enhance milk productivity.

Q4. With the latest registrations, how many total livestock and poultry breeds are officially registered in India?
(a) 230
(b) 238
(c) 242
(d) 246
Answer: 246
Explanation: After registering 16 new breeds, India’s total number of officially registered livestock and poultry breeds has reached 246.

Q5. Which organisation is responsible for livestock breed registration in India since 2008?
(a) Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
(b) Food and Agriculture Organization
(c) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
(d) National Dairy Development Board
Answer: Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
Explanation: ICAR has been registering livestock and poultry breeds since 2008, providing legal protection and supporting targeted breeding and conservation programmes.

Mycorrhizal Fungi and Their Role in Climate Regulation | Tyler Prize 2026

Q1. Mycorrhizal fungi form symbiotic networks with which part of plants?
(a) Leaves
(b) Stems
(c) Seeds
(d) Roots
Answer: Roots
Explanation: Mycorrhizal fungi live in close partnership with plant roots, exchanging nutrients like phosphorus and nitrogen for carbon-rich sugars from plants.

Q2. Approximately how much carbon dioxide do mycorrhizal networks draw down every year?
(a) 3 billion tonnes
(b) 7 billion tonnes
(c) 13 billion tonnes
(d) 25 billion tonnes
Answer: 13 billion tonnes
Explanation: These underground fungal networks help sequester over 13 billion tonnes of CO₂ annually, making them a major natural regulator of Earth’s climate.

Q3. Who was awarded the Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement for research on mycorrhizal fungi?
(a) Jane Goodall
(b) Sylvia Earle
(c) Toby Kiers
(d) Rachel Carson
Answer: Toby Kiers
Explanation: American evolutionary biologist Toby Kiers received the Tyler Prize for highlighting the ecological and climatic importance of mycorrhizal fungi.

Q4. The concept of fungi acting as rational traders in a “biological marketplace” was explained in a paper published in which journal?
(a) Nature
(b) Cell
(c) Science
(d) Ecology Letters
Answer: Science
Explanation: In a 2011 paper published in Science, Toby Kiers showed that fungi trade nutrients with plants based on supply-and-demand principles.

Q5. Which organisation was co-founded by Toby Kiers to advocate protection of underground fungal networks?
(a) WWF
(b) IUCN
(c) SPUN (Society for the Protection of Underground Networks)
(d) UNEP
Answer: SPUN (Society for the Protection of Underground Networks)
Explanation: Toby Kiers co-founded SPUN to promote conservation and legal protection of vital underground fungal ecosystems.

CSIR-NIScPR Celebrates 5th Foundation Day | Science Communication, AI and Traditional Knowledge

Q1. CSIR–NIScPR recently celebrated which Foundation Day?
(a) 3rd
(b) 4th
(c) 5th
(d) 6th
Answer: 5th
Explanation: The CSIR–National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Research marked its 5th Foundation Day, showcasing its growing role in science communication, policy research and traditional knowledge validation.

Q2. CSIR-NIScPR primarily focuses on which of the following areas?
(a) Space research and satellite development
(b) Defence technology and weapons systems
(c) Science communication, policy research and traditional knowledge
(d) Nuclear energy and reactor design
Answer: Science communication, policy research and traditional knowledge
Explanation: CSIR-NIScPR works at the intersection of science communication, evidence-based policy research and validation of India’s traditional knowledge systems.

Q3. Which digital repository, recognised globally for validating India’s traditional knowledge, is housed at CSIR-NIScPR?
(a) Bhuvan
(b) National Knowledge Network
(c) Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL)
(d) e-ShodhSindhu
Answer: Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL)
Explanation: TKDL is a globally recognised digital repository for India’s traditional knowledge, and CSIR-NIScPR is the only laboratory dedicated to its validation.

Q4. Who was the Chief Guest at the 5th Foundation Day event of CSIR-NIScPR?
(a) Geetha Vani Rayasam
(b) Viswajanani J. Sattigeri
(c) Shivkumar Kalyanaraman
(d) Kanika Malik
Answer: Shivkumar Kalyanaraman
Explanation: Shivkumar Kalyanaraman, CEO of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), attended the event as Chief Guest.

Q5. What is SVASTIK, which was launched during the Foundation Day celebrations?
(a) A satellite-based climate monitoring system
(b) An AI tool for scientific publishing
(c) A web portal to disseminate validated traditional knowledge
(d) A fellowship programme for researchers
Answer: A web portal to disseminate validated traditional knowledge
Explanation: SVASTIK is a national web portal implemented by CSIR-NIScPR to share scientifically validated traditional knowledge in English, 19 Indian languages and five foreign languages.

National Conference on Strategic Trade Controls (NCSTC) 2026

Q1. Which organisation organised the National Conference on Strategic Trade Controls (NCSTC) 2026 in New Delhi?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Directorate General of Foreign Trade
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Department of Science and Technology
Answer: Directorate General of Foreign Trade
Explanation: NCSTC 2026 was organised by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs, FIEO and other stakeholders.

Q2. The SCOMET framework in India regulates the export of which type of items?
(a) Agricultural commodities only
(b) Services and digital payments
(c) Dual-use and sensitive goods and technologies
(d) Consumer electronics
Answer: Dual-use and sensitive goods and technologies
Explanation: SCOMET governs the export of dual-use and sensitive goods, technologies, software, materials and equipment that have both civilian and strategic applications.

Q3. Who is the nodal authority for India’s Strategic Trade Control system?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Directorate General of Foreign Trade
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: Directorate General of Foreign Trade
Explanation: DGFT acts as the nodal authority responsible for implementing and overseeing India’s Strategic Trade Control framework.

Q4. What was released during the inaugural session of NCSTC 2026?
(a) New Foreign Trade Policy
(b) Defence Export Roadmap
(c) Third edition of the Handbook on India’s Strategic Trade Control System
(d) National Cyber Security Strategy
Answer: Third edition of the Handbook on India’s Strategic Trade Control System
Explanation: The third edition of the handbook was released to provide detailed guidance on strategic trade control policies, procedures and compliance requirements.

Q5. What does the term “Intangible Technology Transfer” refer to?
(a) Export of raw materials
(b) Physical shipment of machinery
(c) Non-physical transfer of technical know-how
(d) Import of defence equipment
Answer: Non-physical transfer of technical know-how
Explanation: Intangible Technology Transfer involves the non-physical transfer of controlled knowledge or expertise, such as through digital means, training or technical assistance.

Bharat Electricity Summit 2026 to be Hosted in New Delhi

Q1. India will host the Bharat Electricity Summit 2026 at which venue?
(a) Vigyan Bhavan, New Delhi
(b) Pragati Maidan, New Delhi
(c) Yashobhoomi, New Delhi
(d) India Habitat Centre, New Delhi
Answer: Yashobhoomi, New Delhi
Explanation: The Bharat Electricity Summit 2026 will be organised at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi, a major convention and exhibition centre.

Q2. What are the scheduled dates for the Bharat Electricity Summit 2026?
(a) 15–18 February 2026
(b) 19–22 March 2026
(c) 10–13 April 2026
(d) 25–28 May 2026
Answer: 19–22 March 2026
Explanation: The four-day global conference-cum-exhibition will be held from 19 to 22 March 2026.

Q3. Who formally announced that India will host the Bharat Electricity Summit 2026?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) R K Singh
(c) Manohar Lal
(d) Hardeep Singh Puri
Answer: Manohar Lal
Explanation: Union Minister of Power and Housing & Urban Affairs Manohar Lal made the formal announcement, marking the start of preparations for the Summit.

Q4. What is the official theme of the Bharat Electricity Summit 2026?
(a) Powering India’s Green Future
(b) Electricity for All: Secure and Sustainable
(c) Electrifying Growth. Empowering Sustainability. Connecting Globally
(d) Smart Power for a Digital World
Answer: Electrifying Growth. Empowering Sustainability. Connecting Globally
Explanation: The theme highlights India’s leadership in energy transition, sustainability and global cooperation in the power sector.

Q5. Which key feature of the Bharat Electricity Summit 2026 is designed to promote global partnerships and business opportunities?
(a) Startup Innovation Challenge
(b) Buyer–Seller Meet
(c) Ministerial Roundtable
(d) Green Energy Awards
Answer: Buyer–Seller Meet
Explanation: The dedicated Buyer–Seller Meet will facilitate cross-border collaborations and partnerships across the global power and electricity supply chain.

India’s First National Capacity Building Programme for Tribal Healers

Q1. Which ministry is organising India’s first National Capacity Building Programme for Tribal Healers?
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) Ministry of AYUSH
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Explanation: The programme is being organised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to formally recognise and integrate tribal healers into India’s public health system.

Q2. Where will the National Capacity Building Programme for Tribal Healers be held?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bhubaneswar
(c) Hyderabad, Telangana
(d) Ranchi, Jharkhand
Answer: Hyderabad, Telangana
Explanation: The two-day programme will be held in Hyderabad, Telangana, on 16–17 January 2026.

Q3. A Memorandum of Understanding will be signed to establish which national initiative?
(a) National Tribal Disease Control Centre
(b) Bharat Tribal Health Observatory
(c) National Indigenous Medicine Board
(d) Tribal Health Mission Portal
Answer: Bharat Tribal Health Observatory
Explanation: The MoU between the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and ICMR–Regional Medical Research Centre Bhubaneswar will establish the Bharat Tribal Health Observatory.

Q4. The Bharat Tribal Health Observatory will primarily focus on which objective?
(a) Urban health planning
(b) Medical tourism promotion
(c) Tribe-disaggregated health surveillance and research
(d) Pharmaceutical manufacturing
Answer: Tribe-disaggregated health surveillance and research
Explanation: The Observatory will enable tribe-disaggregated health data collection, implementation research and evidence-based disease elimination strategies.

Q5. Which national mission related to tribal health is being implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs?
(a) National Digital Health Mission
(b) National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission
(c) National Nutrition Mission
(d) National AIDS Control Programme
Answer: National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission
Explanation: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission, focusing on improving health outcomes in tribal areas.

Iran’s Protests and the Unravelling Legacy of the 1979 Islamic Revolution

Q1. What were the three main ideals promised by Iran’s 1979 Revolution?
(a) Stability, prosperity and nationalism
(b) Independence, freedom and social justice
(c) Security, religion and economic growth
(d) Unity, development and global leadership
Answer: Independence, freedom and social justice
Explanation: The 1979 Iranian Revolution mobilised people around the slogans of independence from foreign domination, political freedom and social justice.

Q2. Why is the participation of Tehran’s Grand Bazaar significant in the latest protests?
(a) It is Iran’s largest tourist centre
(b) It symbolises foreign influence in Iran
(c) It was historically a strong supporter of the Islamic Republic
(d) It houses major government offices
Answer: It was historically a strong supporter of the Islamic Republic
Explanation: The Grand Bazaar played a key financial and social role in the 1979 revolution, so its mobilisation signals erosion of the regime’s traditional support base.

Q3. Which major economic problem has contributed most to repeated protests in Iran?
(a) Decline in agricultural output
(b) Chronic inflation and currency collapse
(c) Shortage of skilled labour
(d) Rising defence expenditure
Answer: Chronic inflation and currency collapse
Explanation: Persistent inflation, unemployment and economic insecurity have widened the gap between the state and society, fuelling recurring protests.

Q4. What method is commonly used by the Iranian state to suppress nationwide protests?
(a) Power-sharing agreements
(b) Referendums
(c) Internet shutdowns and mass arrests
(d) Economic subsidies
Answer: Internet shutdowns and mass arrests
Explanation: The government routinely imposes internet blackouts, communication restrictions and large-scale arrests to isolate protesters and limit information flow.

Q5. Which factor currently weakens Iran’s protest movement despite widespread dissent?
(a) Strong military support for protesters
(b) Unified opposition leadership
(c) Fragmentation between monarchists and republicans
(d) International military intervention
Answer: Fragmentation between monarchists and republicans
Explanation: Deep divisions within the opposition and the absence of a unified leadership have limited the movement’s ability to convert protests into organised political change.

Uttar Pradesh Approves Six New North–South Road Corridors to Boost Connectivity

Q1. How many new North–South road corridors have been approved by the Uttar Pradesh government?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Eight
Answer: Six
Explanation: The Uttar Pradesh government approved six new North–South road corridors to bridge connectivity gaps and promote balanced regional development across the state.

Q2. The approval for the North–South road corridor initiative was given by which authority?
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(c) Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath
Explanation: The initiative received formal approval from Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath, marking a strategic shift towards vertical connectivity.

Q3. Which is the longest North–South corridor approved under this project?
(a) Shravasti–Prayagraj corridor
(b) Pipri–Prayagraj corridor
(c) Lakhimpur–Banda corridor
(d) Bareilly–Lalitpur corridor
Answer: Bareilly–Lalitpur corridor
Explanation: The Bareilly to Lalitpur corridor, with a length of about 547 km, is the longest among the six approved routes.

Q4. The Shravasti–Prayagraj corridor passes through which of the following districts?
(a) Kanpur and Lucknow
(b) Ayodhya, Sultanpur, and Pratapgarh
(c) Jhansi and Lalitpur
(d) Gorakhpur and Ballia
Answer: Ayodhya, Sultanpur, and Pratapgarh
Explanation: The 262 km Shravasti–Prayagraj corridor connects Ayodhya, Sultanpur, and Pratapgarh, improving connectivity in eastern Uttar Pradesh.

Q5. Which agencies are involved in executing the North–South road corridor projects?
(a) Only State PWD
(b) Only NHAI
(c) State PWD along with NHAI and MoRTH
(d) Indian Railways
Answer: State PWD along with NHAI and MoRTH
Explanation: The execution involves Uttar Pradesh PWD along with central agencies such as the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), making it a coordinated infrastructure effort.

Prehistoric Canoes Discovered Beneath Lake Mendota in the United States

Q1. Where was the prehistoric boat discovery made that revealed ancient human activity in North America?
(a) Lake Superior
(b) Lake Michigan
(c) Lake Mendota
(d) Lake Erie
Answer: Lake Mendota
Explanation: Scientists discovered multiple prehistoric boats beneath Lake Mendota, located in the Great Lakes region of the United States.

Q2. How many ancient wooden boats have been identified so far beneath Lake Mendota?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer: 16
Explanation: Researchers from the Wisconsin Historical Society have identified a total of 16 ancient dugout canoes at the bottom of Lake Mendota.

Q3. The oldest dugout canoe found at Lake Mendota dates back to approximately which period?
(a) 1200 AD
(b) 1000 BC
(c) 3000 BC
(d) 5000 BC
Answer: 3000 BC
Explanation: Carbon dating shows that the oldest boat is about 5,200 years old, dating back to around 3000 BC.

Q4. Which scientific method was used to determine the age of the ancient boats?
(a) Thermoluminescence
(b) Radiocarbon (Carbon) dating
(c) Dendrochronology
(d) Stratigraphy
Answer: Radiocarbon (Carbon) dating
Explanation: Carbon dating was used to accurately determine the age of the wooden canoes found beneath the lake.

Q5. Why is the use of red and white oak in some of the boats considered significant?
(a) Oak was the lightest wood available
(b) Oak naturally floats for longer periods
(c) Ancient builders used tyloses to improve water resistance
(d) Oak was used only for decorative purposes
Answer: Ancient builders used tyloses to improve water resistance
Explanation: Scientists believe prehistoric boatbuilders selected or stressed oak trees to promote tyloses formation, reducing water absorption and decay—showing early bioengineering knowledge.

Largest and Oldest Black Coral Discovered in Deep Waters off New Zealand

Q1. In which region was the exceptionally large and ancient black coral discovered?
(a) Great Barrier Reef
(b) Tasman Sea
(c) Fiordland, New Zealand
(d) South China Sea
Answer: Fiordland, New Zealand
Explanation: The giant black coral was discovered in the deep waters of Fiordland, a region known for its rich and unique marine biodiversity.

Q2. Which institution led the deep-sea exploration that discovered the giant black coral?
(a) University of Auckland
(b) University of Otago
(c) Victoria University of Wellington
(d) National Institute of Water and Atmospheric Research
Answer: Victoria University of Wellington
Explanation: The deep-sea dive was led by a scientific team from Victoria University of Wellington.

Q3. What is the estimated age of the newly discovered black coral?
(a) 50–100 years
(b) 150–200 years
(c) 300–400 years
(d) Over 1,000 years
Answer: 300–400 years
Explanation: Scientists estimate the coral to be between 300 and 400 years old, making it one of the oldest known black corals.

Q4. Why are large and ancient black corals considered scientifically important?
(a) They grow faster than other corals
(b) They indicate polluted marine environments
(c) They act as breeding reservoirs for slow-growing species
(d) They are mainly used for commercial purposes
Answer: They act as breeding reservoirs for slow-growing species
Explanation: Old and massive black corals provide shelter and breeding grounds for deep-sea organisms and indicate long-term stable ocean conditions.

Q5. Under which law is the discovered black coral protected in New Zealand?
(a) Marine Protection Act
(b) Environment Conservation Act
(c) Wildlife Act
(d) Fisheries Regulation Act
Answer: Wildlife Act
Explanation: The coral is protected under New Zealand’s Wildlife Act, making it illegal to collect or damage it, highlighting the importance of marine conservation.

India’s First Green Ammonia Project Launched in Andhra Pradesh

Q1. Where will India’s first green ammonia project be developed?
(a) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tuticorin, Tamil Nadu
(d) Mundra, Gujarat
Answer: Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: India’s first green ammonia project will be developed at Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh, positioning the state as a major clean energy hub.

Q2. What is the total planned production capacity of the AM Green green ammonia project?
(a) 0.5 million tonnes per annum
(b) 1.0 million tonnes per annum
(c) 1.5 million tonnes per annum
(d) 2.0 million tonnes per annum
Answer: 1.5 million tonnes per annum
Explanation: The project is designed to produce 1.5 MTPA of green ammonia, making it the largest such facility in the world.

Q3. The green ammonia project at Kakinada is being developed through which approach?
(a) Completely new greenfield project
(b) Public–private partnership model
(c) Brownfield conversion of an existing complex
(d) Defence industrial corridor model
Answer: Brownfield conversion of an existing complex
Explanation: The project involves brownfield conversion of an existing ammonia-urea complex, reducing costs and accelerating clean energy transition.

Q4. By which year is the project expected to reach its full capacity of 1.5 MTPA?
(a) 2027
(b) 2028
(c) 2029
(d) 2030
Answer: 2030
Explanation: The project will be commissioned in phases, reaching full capacity of 1.5 MTPA by 2030.

Q5. Why is green ammonia considered strategically important for global clean energy markets?
(a) It replaces coal in thermal power plants
(b) It is mainly used for electric vehicle batteries
(c) It acts as a carrier for green hydrogen and clean fuels
(d) It is cheaper than fossil fuels at present
Answer: It acts as a carrier for green hydrogen and clean fuels
Explanation: Green ammonia is a key carrier for green hydrogen and is used in clean shipping fuel, power generation, and hydrogen export pathways, making it vital for global energy transition.

Google Launches TranslateGemma Open-Source Multilingual Translation Models

Q1. What is TranslateGemma recently introduced by Google?
(a) A cloud-only translation service
(b) A family of open-source translation models
(c) A smartphone translation app
(d) A speech-to-text platform
Answer: A family of open-source translation models
Explanation: TranslateGemma is a collection of open-source AI translation models released by Google to enable high-quality multilingual translation across different devices.

Q2. How many languages are supported by Google’s TranslateGemma models?
(a) 25
(b) 40
(c) 55
(d) 75
Answer: 55
Explanation: TranslateGemma supports translation across 55 languages, including several low-resource languages.

Q3. Which TranslateGemma model is highlighted for outperforming a larger baseline while using less computing power?
(a) 4B model
(b) 8B model
(c) 12B model
(d) 27B model
Answer: 12B model
Explanation: The 12B model outperforms Google’s earlier 27B baseline on the WMT24++ benchmark while using less than half the computing resources.

Q4. The TranslateGemma models were fine-tuned using data generated by which AI system?
(a) AlphaGo
(b) Bard
(c) PaLM
(d) Gemini
Answer: Gemini
Explanation: TranslateGemma was developed by fine-tuning Gemma 3 using human translations and synthetic data generated by Gemini.

Q5. Which special capability allows TranslateGemma to translate text directly from images?
(a) Optical Character Recognition (OCR) plugin
(b) Dedicated image-translation training
(c) Multimodal capabilities inherited from Gemma 3
(d) External vision API integration
Answer: Multimodal capabilities inherited from Gemma 3
Explanation: Thanks to multimodal features from Gemma 3, TranslateGemma can translate text embedded in images such as signs, menus, and scanned documents without separate training.

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