14 January 2026 Current Affairs

14 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

India Falls to Third Place Among Buyers of Russian Fossil Fuels in December 2025

Q1. In December 2025, India slipped to which position among the world’s largest buyers of Russian fossil fuels?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer: Third
Explanation: Due to a sharp reduction in crude oil imports from Russia, India fell to third place, behind China and Turkiye, according to data from the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA).

Q2. Which country overtook India to become the second-largest buyer of Russian fossil fuels in December 2025?
(a) Germany
(b) Turkiye
(c) Japan
(d) Brunei
Answer: Turkiye
Explanation: Turkiye imported Russian fossil fuels worth €2.6 billion in December, surpassing India’s €2.3 billion and moving to second place globally.

Q3. What was the total value of India’s imports of Russian hydrocarbons in December 2025?
(a) €3.3 billion
(b) €2.9 billion
(c) €2.6 billion
(d) €2.3 billion
Answer: €2.3 billion
Explanation: India’s imports declined from €3.3 billion in November to €2.3 billion in December, marking the lowest monthly intake since the G7 price cap was implemented.

Q4. Which fuel accounted for the largest share of India’s Russian energy imports in December 2025?
(a) Coal
(b) LNG
(c) Refined oil products
(d) Crude oil
Answer: Crude oil
Explanation: Crude oil dominated India’s imports, making up 78 per cent of purchases and valued at about €1.8 billion.

Q5. The sharp reduction in Russian crude imports was led by cuts at which major Indian refinery?
(a) BPCL Mumbai Refinery
(b) IOCL Panipat Refinery
(c) Reliance Industries’ Jamnagar Refinery
(d) ONGC Mangalore Refinery
Answer: Reliance Industries’ Jamnagar Refinery
Explanation: Reliance’s Jamnagar refinery halved its intake of Russian crude in December, largely due to new US sanctions and increased operational caution by refiners.

Indian Diplomat DB Venkatesh Varma Nominated to Chair UN Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters

Q1. Which Indian diplomat has been nominated to chair the UN Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters for the 2026–27 term?
(a) Syed Akbaruddin
(b) T.S. Tirumurti
(c) DB Venkatesh Varma
(d) Ruchira Kamboj
Answer: DB Venkatesh Varma
Explanation: DB Venkatesh Varma has been nominated by the UN Secretary-General to chair the Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters, marking a historic first for India.

Q2. Why is DB Venkatesh Varma’s appointment considered historic for India?
(a) He is the youngest chairperson of the board
(b) He is the first Indian to head the board since its creation
(c) The board was newly created in 2026
(d) India had never been a member of the board earlier
Answer: He is the first Indian to head the board since its creation
Explanation: Although Indian diplomats have served as members earlier, this is the first time an Indian has been appointed as chairperson since the board was established in 1978.

Q3. The UN Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters primarily advises whom?
(a) UN Security Council
(b) UN General Assembly
(c) UN Secretary-General
(d) International Atomic Energy Agency
Answer: UN Secretary-General
Explanation: The Advisory Board provides expert advice to the UN Secretary-General on issues related to arms limitation, disarmament, and strategic stability.

Q4. DB Venkatesh Varma was closely associated with which major international negotiation while serving at the Prime Minister’s Office?
(a) Paris Climate Agreement
(b) India–Russia Friendship Treaty
(c) India–US Civil Nuclear Agreement
(d) WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement
Answer: India–US Civil Nuclear Agreement
Explanation: During his tenure at the PMO, Varma played a key role in negotiations related to the India–US civil nuclear deal.

Q5. The UN Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters was established in which year?
(a) 1968
(b) 1975
(c) 1978
(d) 1985
Answer: 1978
Explanation: The Advisory Board was established in 1978 following the Tenth Special Session of the UN General Assembly, making this appointment significant after decades of its existence.

Delhi High Court on PM CARES Fund and Right to Privacy under RTI Act

Q1. What did the Delhi High Court observe regarding the PM CARES Fund and the Right to Information Act?
(a) PM CARES Fund has no privacy protection under RTI
(b) PM CARES Fund is completely outside the RTI Act
(c) PM CARES Fund retains a right to privacy under RTI
(d) PM CARES Fund is a constitutional body
Answer: PM CARES Fund retains a right to privacy under RTI
Explanation: The Delhi High Court observed that even if PM CARES Fund is assumed to be run or controlled by the government, it still enjoys statutory privacy protections under the RTI Act.

Q2. The privacy discussed by the Delhi High Court in the PM CARES case relates to which provision?
(a) Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
(b) Article 21 of the Constitution
(c) Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act
(d) Section 22 of the RTI Act
Answer: Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act
Explanation: The Court clarified that the case concerns statutory privacy under Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, which protects personal information of third parties, not the fundamental right to privacy under Article 21.

Q3. According to the Delhi High Court, how are public trusts and private trusts treated under the RTI Act with respect to privacy?
(a) Public trusts have lesser privacy protection
(b) Private trusts have absolute privacy
(c) Public trusts are fully exempt from RTI
(d) Both enjoy equal privacy protection
Answer: Both enjoy equal privacy protection
Explanation: The Court held that there is no distinction between public and private trusts regarding third-party privacy under the RTI Act, as both retain their juristic personality.

Q4. Which provision was cited by the single judge to hold that tax-related information cannot be disclosed under RTI?
(a) Section 22 of the RTI Act
(b) Section 8(2) of the RTI Act
(c) Section 138 of the Income Tax Act
(d) Section 124 of the Income Tax Act
Answer: Section 138 of the Income Tax Act
Explanation: The single judge ruled that Section 138 of the Income Tax Act, which governs disclosure of tax information, overrides the RTI Act in such cases.

Q5. Who challenged the single-judge ruling before the Division Bench of the Delhi High Court?
(a) Income Tax Department
(b) PM CARES Fund Trust
(c) Central Information Commission
(d) Girish Mittal
Answer: Girish Mittal
Explanation: RTI applicant Girish Mittal appealed against the single-judge order, arguing that a government-established charitable trust should not claim privacy under the RTI Act.

Jon Cooper Becomes Second-Fastest NHL Coach to Reach 600 Wins

Q1. Which NHL coach recently became the second-fastest to achieve 600 career coaching wins?
(a) Scotty Bowman
(b) Mike Babcock
(c) Jon Cooper
(d) Joel Quenneville
Answer: Jon Cooper
Explanation: Jon Cooper reached 600 coaching wins in his 1,005th NHL game, making him the second-fastest coach in league history to achieve this milestone.

Q2. Which coach holds the record for being the fastest to reach 600 wins in NHL history?
(a) Jon Cooper
(b) Scotty Bowman
(c) Al Arbour
(d) Pat Quinn
Answer: Scotty Bowman
Explanation: Hall of Fame coach Scotty Bowman remains the fastest to reach 600 NHL coaching wins, achieving the feat in 1,002 games.

Q3. Jon Cooper achieved all of his 600 NHL coaching victories with which franchise?
(a) Montreal Canadiens
(b) Toronto Maple Leafs
(c) Detroit Red Wings
(d) Tampa Bay Lightning
Answer: Tampa Bay Lightning
Explanation: All 600 of Jon Cooper’s wins have come with the Tampa Bay Lightning, making him one of the few coaches to reach such a milestone with a single franchise.

Q4. Under Jon Cooper’s leadership, the Tampa Bay Lightning won back-to-back Stanley Cup titles in which years?
(a) 2018 and 2019
(b) 2019 and 2020
(c) 2020 and 2021
(d) 2021 and 2022
Answer: 2020 and 2021
Explanation: Cooper guided the Lightning to consecutive Stanley Cup championships in 2020 and 2021, establishing the team as a dominant force in the NHL.

Q5. Jon Cooper is set to serve as head coach for which country at the 2026 Winter Olympics?
(a) United States
(b) Sweden
(c) Finland
(d) Canada
Answer: Canada
Explanation: Jon Cooper has been appointed as the head coach of Canada for the 2026 Winter Olympics in Milan, highlighting his international coaching reputation.

Odisha to Become First Indian State to Plan a Comprehensive CKD Registry

Q1. Which Indian state is set to become the first to plan a comprehensive Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) registry?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Odisha
(d) Maharashtra
Answer: Odisha
Explanation: Odisha is set to become the first state in India to plan a state-wide, comprehensive CKD registry to generate reliable data for policymaking.

Q2. What is the primary objective of establishing a CKD registry in Odisha?
(a) To provide free dialysis to all patients
(b) To regulate private hospitals
(c) To generate reliable data for evidence-based policymaking
(d) To replace the national CKD registry
Answer: To generate reliable data for evidence-based policymaking
Explanation: The registry aims to create a structured database to support early detection, treatment planning, and long-term management of CKD through data-driven decisions.

Q3. Which organization is responsible for developing the software for the CKD registry in Odisha?
(a) Indian Council of Medical Research
(b) AIIMS
(c) World Health Organization
(d) National Informatics Centre
Answer: National Informatics Centre
Explanation: The National Informatics Centre (NIC) is developing the dedicated software platform for implementing the CKD registry.

Q4. Nearly what percentage of CKD cases in Odisha are linked to diabetes and hypertension?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
Answer: 60%
Explanation: Around 60% of CKD cases in Odisha are associated with diabetes and hypertension, making them the leading causes of the disease burden.

Q5. Currently, dialysis patients represent approximately what percentage of the total CKD cases in Odisha?
(a) 10%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
Answer: 10%
Explanation: Available data mainly covers dialysis patients, who account for only about 10% of total CKD cases, while nearly 90% are in early stages.

Spanish Satellite Survives Briefly After ISRO’s PSLV-C62 Launch Failure

Q1. Which ISRO launch mission experienced a third-stage anomaly leading to mission failure?
(a) PSLV-C59
(b) PSLV-C60
(c) PSLV-C62
(d) Gaganyaan G1
Answer: PSLV-C62
Explanation: ISRO’s PSLV-C62 mission suffered a disturbance near the end of its third stage, causing deviation from the planned trajectory and failure to place satellites into orbit.

Q2. Which foreign satellite unexpectedly survived long enough to transmit data after the PSLV-C62 failure?
(a) EOS-N1 (Anvesha)
(b) INS-2TD
(c) KID (Kestrel Initial Demonstrator)
(d) SkySat-X
Answer: KID (Kestrel Initial Demonstrator)
Explanation: The Spanish satellite KID, developed by Orbital Paradigm, separated from the rocket and transmitted telemetry data for about three minutes despite the launch failure.

Q3. KID (Kestrel Initial Demonstrator) was developed by which country’s startup?
(a) France
(b) Spain
(c) Germany
(d) Italy
Answer: Spain
Explanation: KID was developed by the Spanish startup Orbital Paradigm, with technical collaboration from French partner RIDE.

Q4. What was the primary objective of the KID satellite mission?
(a) Earth observation
(b) Deep space communication
(c) Controlled atmospheric re-entry and splashdown testing
(d) Navigation and positioning
Answer: Controlled atmospheric re-entry and splashdown testing
Explanation: KID was designed as a re-entry demonstrator to test heat resistance, deceleration, and controlled splashdown technologies.

Q5. Which orbit was PSLV-C62 originally intended to place its satellites into?
(a) Geostationary orbit
(b) Low Earth equatorial orbit
(c) Highly elliptical orbit
(d) Sun-synchronous orbit
Answer: Sun-synchronous orbit
Explanation: PSLV missions are commonly used for sun-synchronous orbits, which allow satellites to pass over the same Earth location at the same local time—important for Earth observation missions.

West Bengal on High Alert After Nipah Virus Cases Confirmed

Q1. Which institution confirmed the presence of Nipah virus in the samples from West Bengal?
(a) AIIMS Kalyani
(b) National Centre for Disease Control
(c) Indian Council of Medical Research
(d) National Institute of Virology, Pune
Answer: National Institute of Virology, Pune
Explanation: The samples were initially tested at AIIMS Kalyani but were confirmed positive for Nipah virus after re-testing by the National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune.

Q2. Nipah virus is classified as which type of disease?
(a) Vector-borne disease
(b) Genetic disorder
(c) Zoonotic disease
(d) Autoimmune disease
Answer: Zoonotic disease
Explanation: Nipah virus is a zoonotic infection, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans.

Q3. Which animal is the natural reservoir of the Nipah virus?
(a) Rodents
(b) Monkeys
(c) Fruit bats (Pteropus genus)
(d) Domestic pigs
Answer: Fruit bats (Pteropus genus)
Explanation: Fruit bats of the Pteropus genus are the natural reservoir of the Nipah virus and can transmit it directly or indirectly to humans.

Q4. Human-to-human transmission of Nipah virus has been most commonly reported in which setting?
(a) Schools
(b) Public transport
(c) Healthcare settings
(d) Agricultural fields
Answer: Healthcare settings
Explanation: Human-to-human transmission of Nipah virus has been documented mainly in healthcare settings due to close contact with infected patients.

Q5. Which of the following is a known food-related route for Nipah virus transmission?
(a) Undercooked meat
(b) Contaminated drinking water
(c) Raw date palm sap
(d) Unpasteurised milk
Answer: Raw date palm sap
Explanation: Consumption of raw date palm sap contaminated by fruit bats is a known transmission route of the Nipah virus.

Pawan Kalyan Inducted into Kenjutsu – Rare Honour in Japanese Martial Arts

Q1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated which Indian public figure for induction into Kenjutsu?
(a) Akshay Kumar
(b) Pawan Kalyan
(c) Vidyut Jammwal
(d) Milind Soman
Answer: Pawan Kalyan
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated Andhra Pradesh Deputy Chief Minister Pawan Kalyan on his official induction into Kenjutsu.

Q2. Kenjutsu, in which Pawan Kalyan was inducted, is associated with which country?
(a) China
(b) South Korea
(c) Japan
(d) Thailand
Answer: Japan
Explanation: Kenjutsu is an ancient Japanese martial art that focuses on traditional swordsmanship techniques.

Q3. Which of the following best describes Kenjutsu?
(a) A modern self-defence sport
(b) A wrestling-based martial art
(c) A traditional sword-based martial art emphasising discipline
(d) A mixed martial art system
Answer: A traditional sword-based martial art emphasising discipline
Explanation: Kenjutsu is a classical Japanese martial tradition centred on sword techniques, mental discipline, and spiritual balance.

Q4. According to the Prime Minister, practising martial arts helps develop which of the following qualities?
(a) Speed and aggression
(b) Wealth and fame
(c) Patience, self-control, and mental balance
(d) Political leadership skills
Answer: Patience, self-control, and mental balance
Explanation: The Prime Minister highlighted that martial arts cultivate inner qualities such as patience and self-control, which are important for public life.

Q5. Pawan Kalyan’s achievement was linked to which national initiative promoting fitness in India?
(a) Khelo India
(b) Fit India
(c) Digital India
(d) Make in India
Answer: Fit India
Explanation: The Prime Minister connected the achievement with the Fit India movement, which encourages physical fitness and healthy living among citizens.

Israel Announces Withdrawal from Multiple United Nations Agencies

Q1. How many United Nations agencies and affiliated bodies has Israel announced its immediate withdrawal from?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Ten
Answer: Seven
Explanation: Israel announced its immediate withdrawal from seven UN agencies and affiliated bodies, marking a sharp escalation in its disengagement from multilateral institutions.

Q2. Israel’s decision to withdraw followed a review conducted after which country exited 66 international organisations?
(a) United Kingdom
(b) Russia
(c) United States
(d) China
Answer: United States
Explanation: The Israeli Foreign Minister stated that the decision was triggered after an internal review conducted following the United States’ exit from 66 international organisations.

Q3. Israel ended cooperation with UN Women primarily over its response to which issue?
(a) Refugee resettlement
(b) Trade sanctions
(c) Sexual violence allegations during the October 7 attacks
(d) Climate change policies
Answer: Sexual violence allegations during the October 7 attacks
Explanation: Israel accused UN Women of failing to adequately address sexual violence committed against Israelis during the October 7 attacks, leading to the termination of cooperation.

Q4. Which UN body focuses on trade, investment, and development and was among those Israel withdrew from?
(a) UNESCO
(b) UNDP
(c) UNCTAD
(d) UNEP
Answer: UNCTAD
Explanation: The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) deals with global trade, investment, and development issues and was criticised by Israel for producing hostile reports.

Q5. Which of the following statements about UN membership is correct?
(a) Leaving a UN body automatically ends UN membership
(b) Member states cannot withdraw from specialised UN agencies
(c) Withdrawal from UN bodies is allowed without exiting the UN
(d) Only the UN Security Council can approve withdrawals
Answer: Withdrawal from UN bodies is allowed without exiting the UN
Explanation: Countries can withdraw from individual UN agencies, funds, or commissions while remaining full members of the United Nations itself.

NDSA Issues Show-Cause Notice Over Safety Lapses at Bargi Dam

Q1. Which authority issued the show-cause notice over safety lapses at the Bargi Dam?
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Ministry of Environment
(c) National Dam Safety Authority
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: National Dam Safety Authority
Explanation: The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) issued the notice after finding serious safety violations at the Bargi Dam.

Q2. The Bargi Dam is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Bhopal
(b) Indore
(c) Jabalpur
(d) Rewa
Answer: Jabalpur
Explanation: The Bargi Dam is situated in Madhya Pradesh’s Jabalpur district.

Q3. Under which law were violations alleged at the Bargi Dam?
(a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(c) Dam Safety Act, 2021
(d) Disaster Management Act, 2005
Answer: Dam Safety Act, 2021
Explanation: The notice highlights alleged violations of the Dam Safety Act, 2021, which provides a legal framework for dam surveillance and safety.

Q4. Which major structural issue at the Bargi Dam raised serious concern for the authorities?
(a) Cracks in the powerhouse roof
(b) Continuous heavy leakage from the masonry spillway gallery
(c) Siltation of the reservoir
(d) Flooding of upstream areas
Answer: Continuous heavy leakage from the masonry spillway gallery
Explanation: Persistent leakage, first flagged in 1988, could weaken the dam’s foundation and pose serious risks to downstream areas.

Q5. The National Dam Safety Authority functions under which Union Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Power
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Jal Shakti
Answer: Ministry of Jal Shakti
Explanation: The NDSA operates under the Ministry of Jal Shakti and is responsible for ensuring the safety of dams across India.

Indian Lighthouse Festival 3.0 Concludes in Visakhapatnam

Q1. Where did the two-day Indian Lighthouse Festival 3.0 conclude?
(a) Kochi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Chennai
Answer: Visakhapatnam
Explanation: The Indian Lighthouse Festival 3.0 concluded in Visakhapatnam, highlighting maritime heritage, coastal culture, and lighthouse-led tourism.

Q2. Which Union Minister addressed the valedictory session of the Indian Lighthouse Festival 3.0?
(a) Nitin Gadkari
(b) Sarbananda Sonowal
(c) Dharmendra Pradhan
(d) G. Kishan Reddy
Answer: Sarbananda Sonowal
Explanation: Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal addressed the valedictory session and outlined future maritime initiatives.

Q3. Andhra Pradesh’s first Lighthouse Museum will be developed in which city?
(a) Kakinada
(b) Nellore
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Machilipatnam
Answer: Visakhapatnam
Explanation: The first Lighthouse Museum of Andhra Pradesh will be developed in Visakhapatnam to promote maritime education, heritage, and tourism.

Q4. National Waterway–2, where new lighthouses are planned, is associated with which river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) Brahmaputra
Answer: Brahmaputra
Explanation: National Waterway–2 corresponds to the Brahmaputra river system, along which four new lighthouses will be constructed in Assam.

Q5. The Indian Lighthouse Festival is organised by which organisation?
(a) Indian Navy
(b) Port Trust of India
(c) Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships
(d) National Maritime Board
Answer: Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships
Explanation: The Indian Lighthouse Festival is organised by the Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL) under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Bamanwas Kankar Becomes Rajasthan’s First Fully Organic Gram Panchayat

Q1. Which gram panchayat has become Rajasthan’s first village body to be certified as fully organic?
(a) Khuri
(b) Bamanwas Kankar
(c) Mandawa
(d) Nawalgarh
Answer: Bamanwas Kankar
Explanation: Bamanwas Kankar gram panchayat has emerged as Rajasthan’s first fully organic village body, adopting chemical-free farming practices.

Q2. Bamanwas Kankar is located in which district of Rajasthan?
(a) Alwar
(b) Jaipur
(c) Sikar
(d) Kotputli–Behror
Answer: Kotputli–Behror
Explanation: The gram panchayat is situated in the newly formed Kotputli–Behror district of Rajasthan.

Q3. Which of the following practices is a key feature of organic farming adopted in Bamanwas Kankar?
(a) Use of synthetic fertilisers
(b) Chemical pesticide spraying
(c) Crop rotation and mulching
(d) Genetically modified seeds
Answer: Crop rotation and mulching
Explanation: Organic farming in the village includes crop rotation and mulching to restore soil fertility and retain moisture without chemicals.

Q4. Which organisation supported Bamanwas Kankar in technical guidance and organic certification?
(a) NABARD
(b) Krishi Vigyan Kendra
(c) Cofarmin Federation of Organic Societies and Producer Companies
(d) National Organic Farming Mission
Answer: Cofarmin Federation of Organic Societies and Producer Companies
Explanation: The Cofarmin Federation provided institutional support, technical guidance, and assistance with organic certification and market access.

Q5. What is one major benefit reported by farmers after shifting to organic farming?
(a) Increased use of chemical inputs
(b) Decline in biodiversity
(c) Improved soil health and reduced costs
(d) Lower crop diversity
Answer: Improved soil health and reduced costs
Explanation: Farmers reported better soil health, higher biodiversity, and reduced dependence on expensive chemical inputs, making farming more sustainable.

China’s EAST Tokamak Achieves Breakthrough Beyond Plasma Density Limit

Q1. Which nuclear fusion facility achieved the breakthrough by sustaining plasma densities beyond a theoretical limit?
(a) ITER
(b) JET
(c) EAST Tokamak
(d) KSTAR
Answer: EAST Tokamak
Explanation: The breakthrough was achieved at China’s Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST), a major nuclear fusion research facility.

Q2. The EAST Tokamak is operated by which country?
(a) Japan
(b) United States
(c) South Korea
(d) China
Answer: China
Explanation: EAST is a Chinese nuclear fusion experimental reactor operated by Chinese scientists.

Q3. Sustaining very high plasma density is important because it helps achieve which key fusion stage?
(a) Cold plasma
(b) Magnetic confinement failure
(c) Burning plasma
(d) Nuclear fission
Answer: Burning plasma
Explanation: Burning plasma is a critical stage where fusion reactions become self-sustaining, making fusion power generation viable.

Q4. A tokamak primarily uses which method to control plasma during fusion experiments?
(a) Chemical reactions
(b) Laser compression
(c) Magnetic confinement
(d) Mechanical pressure
Answer: Magnetic confinement
Explanation: Tokamaks use powerful magnetic fields to confine and control extremely hot plasma needed for nuclear fusion.

Q5. Nuclear fusion is considered a future energy source mainly because it is
(a) Highly polluting
(b) Based on fossil fuels
(c) Capable of producing clean and abundant energy
(d) Easy to achieve with current technology
Answer: Capable of producing clean and abundant energy
Explanation: Fusion offers the potential for clean, low-carbon, and virtually limitless energy, which is why advances like this are significant for future power generation.

16th ADMM-Plus Experts Working Group on Counter Terrorism to be Held in New Delhi

Q1. Where will the 16th meeting of the ADMM-Plus Experts Working Group on Counter Terrorism be held?
(a) Kuala Lumpur
(b) Jakarta
(c) New Delhi
(d) Bangkok
Answer: New Delhi
Explanation: The 16th ADMM-Plus Experts Working Group on Counter Terrorism meeting will be held in New Delhi from January 14 to 16, 2026.

Q2. Which two countries will jointly co-chair the Counter Terrorism Experts Working Group under ADMM-Plus?
(a) India and Indonesia
(b) India and Malaysia
(c) India and Singapore
(d) India and Thailand
Answer: India and Malaysia
Explanation: India and Malaysia will jointly co-chair the 16th Experts Working Group on Counter Terrorism under the ADMM-Plus framework.

Q3. The ADMM-Plus framework includes ASEAN member states and how many dialogue partners?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight
Answer: Eight
Explanation: ADMM-Plus involves ASEAN countries along with eight dialogue partners, including India, the US, China, Japan, Russia, Australia, New Zealand and South Korea.

Q4. The current Experts Working Group cycle on Counter Terrorism covers which period?
(a) 2023–2026
(b) 2024–2027
(c) 2025–2028
(d) 2026–2029
Answer: 2024–2027
Explanation: The ongoing EWG cycle runs from 2024 to 2027 and focuses on strengthening multilateral counter-terrorism cooperation.

Q5. Which country will host the Table Top Exercise (TTX) under the current EWG cycle?
(a) India
(b) Singapore
(c) Malaysia
(d) Vietnam
Answer: Malaysia
Explanation: Malaysia will host the Table Top Exercise in 2026, while India will conduct the Field Training Exercise in 2027, as part of the EWG cycle.

Sabarimala Temple Prepares for Makara Vilakku Festival

Q1. The Makara Vilakku festival at Sabarimala Temple will be observed on which date?
(a) January 1
(b) January 10
(c) January 14
(d) January 26
Answer: January 14
Explanation: Makara Vilakku is observed on January 14, coinciding with the Makara Sankrama night.

Q2. The Sabarimala Temple is located in which Indian state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer: Kerala
Explanation: The hill shrine of Sabarimala Temple is located in the state of Kerala.

Q3. The sacred Makarajyothi associated with the Sabarimala pilgrimage is witnessed at which place?
(a) Nilakkal
(b) Pamba
(c) Ponnambalamedu
(d) Pathanamthitta
Answer: Ponnambalamedu
Explanation: Pilgrims gather to witness the sacred Makarajyothi at Ponnambalamedu, which marks the spiritual culmination of the pilgrimage.

Q4. Makara Vilakku coincides with which important astronomical or cultural event?
(a) Karthigai Deepam
(b) Makara Sankrama
(c) Vaikunta Ekadashi
(d) Pongal
Answer: Makara Sankrama
Explanation: Makara Vilakku is observed on the night of Makara Sankrama, when the Sun enters the zodiac sign Capricorn.

Q5. The Makara Vilakku festival marks the culmination of which annual event?
(a) Temple renovation cycle
(b) Monsoon festival
(c) Sabarimala annual pilgrimage season
(d) Kerala tourism week
Answer: Sabarimala annual pilgrimage season
Explanation: Makara Vilakku represents the spiritual climax of the annual Sabarimala pilgrimage, drawing thousands of devotees every year.

India Open Badminton 2026 Begins at New Delhi

Q1. Where is the India Open Badminton tournament being held in 2026?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, Delhi
(b) Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi
(c) K.D. Jadhav Indoor Hall, Delhi
(d) Talkatora Indoor Stadium, New Delhi
Answer: Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi
Explanation: The India Open 2026 is being hosted at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi.

Q2. The India Open Badminton tournament is categorised under which BWF World Tour level?
(a) Super 300
(b) Super 500
(c) Super 750
(d) Super 1000
Answer: Super 750
Explanation: India Open is a BWF Super 750 event, offering high ranking points and prize money.

Q3. Which Indian shuttler is leading India’s women’s singles campaign at the India Open 2026?
(a) Saina Nehwal
(b) Malvika Bansod
(c) Tanvi Sharma
(d) PV Sindhu
Answer: PV Sindhu
Explanation: Two-time Olympic medallist PV Sindhu is spearheading India’s women’s singles challenge at the tournament.

Q4. Which Indian men’s doubles pair will aim to reclaim the India Open title they last won in 2022?
(a) Manu Attri / Sumeeth Reddy
(b) Satwiksairaj Rankireddy / Chirag Shetty
(c) MR Arjun / Dhruv Kapila
(d) Krishna Prasad / Vishnuvardhan
Answer: Satwiksairaj Rankireddy / Chirag Shetty
Explanation: World number three pair Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty are former champions, having won the title in 2022.

Q5. The India Open 2026 is especially important as preparation for which major upcoming event at the same venue?
(a) Asian Games
(b) Thomas Cup Finals
(c) BWF World Championships 2026
(d) Commonwealth Games
Answer: BWF World Championships 2026
Explanation: The Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium will also host the 2026 BWF World Championships, making the India Open crucial for familiarisation with conditions.

India Launches Logo and Website for BRICS Presidency 2026

Q1. Who launched the official website and logo for India’s BRICS Presidency 2026?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Amit Shah
(c) S. Jaishankar
(d) Piyush Goyal
Answer: S. Jaishankar
Explanation: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar launched the official website and logo for India’s BRICS Presidency 2026.

Q2. India will assume the BRICS chairship in which year?
(a) 2025
(b) 2026
(c) 2027
(d) 2028
Answer: 2026
Explanation: India is set to take over the BRICS chairship in 2026, a milestone year for the grouping.

Q3. BRICS will complete how many years since its establishment in 2026?
(a) 15 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 25 years
Answer: 20 years
Explanation: BRICS was established in 2006 and will complete 20 years in 2026.

Q4. What is the theme of India’s BRICS Presidency 2026?
(a) Inclusive Growth and Global Peace
(b) Unity and Economic Revival
(c) Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation, and Sustainability
(d) Digital Transformation and Green Energy
Answer: Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation, and Sustainability
Explanation: India’s BRICS 2026 theme highlights a humanity-first and people-centric approach focusing on resilience, innovation, cooperation, and sustainability.

Q5. What does the BRICS 2026 logo unveiled by India symbolise?
(a) Economic dominance
(b) Military cooperation
(c) Unity in diversity among BRICS nations
(d) Technological leadership
Answer: Unity in diversity among BRICS nations
Explanation: The logo blends tradition and modernity, using colours of all BRICS members to symbolise shared purpose, collective strength, and respect for diversity.

Kochi to Host 9th International Spice Conference (ISC 2026)

Q1. Which city will host the 9th edition of the International Spice Conference (ISC 2026)?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kochi
(c) Chennai
(d) Thiruvananthapuram
Answer: Kochi
Explanation: The 9th International Spice Conference (ISC 2026) will be held in Kochi, reinforcing Kerala’s historic role in the global spice trade.

Q2. The International Spice Conference (ISC 2026) is being organised by which organisation?
(a) Spices Board of India
(b) Federation of Indian Export Organisations
(c) All India Spices Exporters Forum
(d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: All India Spices Exporters Forum
Explanation: ISC 2026 is organised by the All India Spices Exporters Forum (AISEF), which represents exporters across India’s spice value chain.

Q3. What is the theme of the International Spice Conference 2026?
(a) Sustainable Agriculture for Global Trade
(b) Spices for Health and Nutrition
(c) Spice 360 – Getting Future Ready
(d) Innovation in Agri-Exports
Answer: Spice 360 – Getting Future Ready
Explanation: The theme “Spice 360 – Getting Future Ready” highlights a holistic and forward-looking approach to growth in the global spice industry.

Q4. Who will inaugurate the International Spice Conference 2026?
(a) Piyush Goyal
(b) Ramesh Chand
(c) Amitabh Kant
(d) Nandan Nilekani
Answer: Amitabh Kant
Explanation: The conference will be inaugurated by Amitabh Kant, former G20 Sherpa and ex-CEO of NITI Aayog.

Q5. Why does hosting ISC 2026 in Kerala hold special significance?
(a) Kerala is India’s largest spice-consuming state
(b) Kerala has been a historic hub of the global spice trade
(c) Kerala recently became the top spice exporter
(d) Kerala hosts India’s biggest spice processing units
Answer: Kerala has been a historic hub of the global spice trade
Explanation: Kerala has played a central role in the global spice trade since ancient times, making it a symbolic and strategic location for ISC 2026.

UAE Passport Ranks 5th Globally in Henley Passport Index 2026

Q1. What is the global rank of the UAE passport in the Henley Passport Index 2026?
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Seventh
Answer: Fifth
Explanation: In the Henley Passport Index 2026, the UAE passport is ranked fifth worldwide, its highest-ever position.

Q2. How many destinations does the UAE passport offer visa-free or visa-on-arrival access to in 2026?
(a) 172
(b) 178
(c) 184
(d) 190
Answer: 184
Explanation: According to the index, UAE passport holders can access 184 destinations without a prior visa or with visa-on-arrival.

Q3. The UAE has climbed how many positions on the Henley Passport Index since 2006?
(a) 35 places
(b) 42 places
(c) 50 places
(d) 57 places
Answer: 57 places
Explanation: Since 2006, the UAE has risen an unprecedented 57 positions, the largest jump recorded by any country on the index.

Q4. Which country currently ranks first on the Henley Passport Index 2026?
(a) Japan
(b) Germany
(c) Singapore
(d) France
Answer: Singapore
Explanation: Singapore holds the top position on the Henley Passport Index, offering the highest level of global travel freedom.

Q5. Which factor has played the most important role in strengthening the UAE passport over time?
(a) Military alliances
(b) Natural resource exports
(c) Diplomatic engagement and visa agreements
(d) Population growth
Answer: Diplomatic engagement and visa agreements
Explanation: The UAE’s rise in passport strength is mainly attributed to sustained diplomacy, political stability, and bilateral and multilateral visa liberalisation agreements.

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