7 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

7 January – Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

1610 – Galileo Galilei discovered the moons of Jupiter
On 7 January 1610, Galileo Galilei discovered four large moons of Jupiter using a telescope.
These moons are called Galilean moons and proved that not all celestial bodies revolve around the Earth.

1927 – First transatlantic telephone call
On this day, the first transatlantic telephone call was made between New York and London.
This event marked a major step in the development of global communication.

1948 – First television broadcast using cable
On 7 January 1948, the first cable television broadcast was carried out.
It helped in improving TV signal quality in areas with poor reception.

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7 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Uttar Pradesh Digital Libraries in Gram Panchayats

Q1. Where has the Uttar Pradesh government decided to establish state-of-the-art digital libraries to promote rural education?
(a) District Collectorates
(b) Government Degree Colleges
(c) Gram Panchayat Secretariats
(d) Block Development Offices
Answer: (c) Gram Panchayat Secretariats
Explanation: The Uttar Pradesh government plans to set up digital libraries in Gram Panchayat Secretariats to ensure easy access to modern educational resources for students in rural areas.

Q2. What is the primary objective of establishing digital libraries in rural Uttar Pradesh?
(a) To promote entertainment facilities in villages
(b) To support competitive and academic exam preparation within villages
(c) To replace traditional schools
(d) To provide employment to librarians
Answer: (b) To support competitive and academic exam preparation within villages
Explanation: The initiative aims to help rural students prepare for competitive and academic examinations using digital tools without needing to travel to urban centres.

Q3. By which date is the procurement of IT equipment for the digital libraries targeted to be completed?
(a) 15 January
(b) 26 January
(c) 30 January
(d) 5 February
Answer: (c) 30 January
Explanation: According to the Panchayati Raj Department, procurement of IT equipment for all districts is targeted for completion by 30 January.

Q4. Which of the following facilities will be available in each digital library under this initiative?
(a) Only printed textbooks
(b) Wi-Fi, computers, LED screens, and CCTV cameras
(c) Sports equipment and auditoriums
(d) Television channels only
Answer: (b) Wi-Fi, computers, LED screens, and CCTV cameras
Explanation: Each digital library will be equipped with modern facilities such as Wi-Fi connectivity, computer systems, LED screens, and CCTV cameras to support digital learning.

Q5. What is the estimated total expenditure per digital library established in Gram Panchayat Secretariats?
(a) ₹2 lakh
(b) ₹3 lakh
(c) ₹4 lakh
(d) ₹5 lakh
Answer: (c) ₹4 lakh
Explanation: The estimated cost per digital library is ₹4 lakh, which includes ₹2 lakh for books, ₹1.30 lakh for IT equipment, and ₹70,000 for furniture, reflecting the state’s focus on quality digital education infrastructure.

National-level SARAS Mela 2026 in Guntur

Q1. Which district will host the National-level SARAS Mela 2026 for the first time?
(a) Vijayawada
(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Nellore
(d) Guntur
Answer: (d) Guntur
Explanation: Guntur district will host the National-level SARAS Mela 2026 for the first time, marking a significant milestone and bringing national attention to rural livelihoods and women-led enterprises.

Q2. SARAS Mela is a flagship initiative under which government mission?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
(b) National Rural Livelihoods Mission
(c) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
(d) Skill India Mission
Answer: (b) National Rural Livelihoods Mission
Explanation: SARAS Mela is a flagship initiative under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) aimed at promoting sustainable livelihoods and economic empowerment of women Self-Help Groups.

Q3. How many States and Union Territories will be represented by women artisans and entrepreneurs at SARAS Mela 2026?
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 21
(d) 25
Answer: (c) 21
Explanation: SARAS Mela 2026 will bring together around 300 women artisans and entrepreneurs from 21 States and Union Territories across India.

Q4. Who will inaugurate the National-level SARAS Mela 2026 in Guntur on 8 January 2026?
(a) Governor of Andhra Pradesh
(b) Union Minister for Rural Development
(c) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
(d) District Collector of Guntur
Answer: (c) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: The exhibition will be formally inaugurated by the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh on 8 January 2026 at 4:00 PM, in the presence of the Union Minister of State.

Q5. What does DWCRA stand for in the context of women Self-Help Groups participating in SARAS Mela?
(a) Development of Women for Cooperative Rural Activities
(b) District Women Cooperative Rural Association
(c) Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas
(d) Department of Welfare for Community Rural Action
Answer: (c) Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas
Explanation: DWCRA stands for Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas, a programme focused on empowering rural women through Self-Help Groups and livelihood activities.

Archaeological Discoveries at Bhir Mound, Taxila

Q1. The archaeological site of Bhir Mound, where rare decorative stones and ancient coins were discovered, is located near which historic city?
(a) Peshawar
(b) Lahore
(c) Takshashila (Taxila)
(d) Swat
Answer: (c) Takshashila (Taxila)
Explanation: Bhir Mound is part of the UNESCO-listed Taxila archaeological complex near the historic city of Takshashila, an important centre of the Gandhara civilisation.

Q2. The decorative stones discovered at Bhir Mound have been identified as which semi-precious material?
(a) Carnelian
(b) Jasper
(c) Turquoise
(d) Lapis lazuli
Answer: (d) Lapis lazuli
Explanation: Archaeologists identified the decorative stone fragments as lapis lazuli, a highly valued semi-precious stone in ancient times that also indicates long-distance trade connections.

Q3. The bronze coins unearthed at Bhir Mound are associated with which ancient dynasty?
(a) Maurya dynasty
(b) Gupta dynasty
(c) Kushan dynasty
(d) Shunga dynasty
Answer: (c) Kushan dynasty
Explanation: Numismatic analysis attributed the bronze coins to the Kushan dynasty, which ruled large parts of north-western India and Central Asia between the 1st and 3rd centuries AD.

Q4. Which Kushan ruler’s image is believed to appear on the bronze coins found at the site?
(a) Kanishka the Great
(b) Kujula Kadphises
(c) Huvishka
(d) Vasudeva
Answer: (d) Vasudeva
Explanation: The coins are believed to bear the image of Emperor Vasudeva, regarded as one of the last major rulers of the Kushan dynasty, reflecting the political history of the period.

Q5. The presence of lapis lazuli at Bhir Mound primarily indicates which aspect of ancient Gandhara civilisation?
(a) Agricultural development
(b) Military expansion
(c) Long-distance trade networks
(d) River-based settlement planning
Answer: (c) Long-distance trade networks
Explanation: Lapis lazuli was mainly sourced from the Badakhshan region of present-day Afghanistan, indicating that Gandhara had extensive long-distance trade links with Central Asia and beyond.

India Introduces e-B-4 Visa for Chinese Business Professionals

Q1. What is the newly introduced e-Production Investment Business Visa for Chinese professionals called?
(a) e-B-2 Visa
(b) e-B-3 Visa
(c) e-B-4 Visa
(d) e-B-5 Visa
Answer: (c) e-B-4 Visa
Explanation: India has introduced the e-B-4 Visa, an electronic Production Investment Business Visa, to allow Chinese business professionals to travel to India for specified industrial and commercial activities.

Q2. From which date was the e-B-4 Visa officially introduced for Chinese nationals?
(a) December 25, 2025
(b) January 1, 2026
(c) January 5, 2026
(d) February 1, 2026
Answer: (b) January 1, 2026
Explanation: The e-B-4 Visa was introduced from January 1 and can be applied for fully online without visiting the Indian embassy.

Q3. What is the maximum duration of stay in India permitted under the e-B-4 Visa?
(a) Three months
(b) Four months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
Answer: (c) Six months
Explanation: The e-B-4 Visa allows Chinese business professionals to stay in India for a maximum period of up to six months.

Q4. Which of the following activities is permitted under the e-B-4 Visa?
(a) Tourism and leisure travel
(b) Academic research and teaching
(c) Installation, commissioning, and maintenance of equipment
(d) Permanent employment in India
Answer: (c) Installation, commissioning, and maintenance of equipment
Explanation: The e-B-4 Visa permits production-linked and investment-related activities such as installation and commissioning of equipment, quality checks, maintenance, IT system ramp-up, and workforce training.

Q5. Through which platform must Indian companies register to invite Chinese professionals under the e-B-4 Visa category?
(a) Bureau of Immigration Portal
(b) Ministry of External Affairs Portal
(c) National Single Window System of DPIIT
(d) Invest India Portal
Answer: (c) National Single Window System of DPIIT
Explanation: Indian companies are required to register on the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade’s National Single Window System (NSWS) to invite Chinese professionals under the e-B-4 Visa category.

Tamil Nadu Assured Pension Scheme (TAPS)

Q1. What is the name of the new pension scheme announced by Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Stalin for state government employees and teachers?
(a) Tamil Nadu Contributory Pension Scheme
(b) Old Pension Scheme (OPS)
(c) Tamil Nadu Assured Pension Scheme (TAPS)
(d) National Pension System (NPS)
Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu Assured Pension Scheme (TAPS)
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu government announced the Tamil Nadu Assured Pension Scheme (TAPS), guaranteeing a fixed pension to state government employees and teachers.

Q2. Under TAPS, what percentage of the last-drawn monthly salary is guaranteed as pension?
(a) 40%
(b) 45%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Answer: (c) 50%
Explanation: TAPS guarantees a pension equal to 50% of the employee’s last-drawn monthly salary, partially restoring benefits similar to the Old Pension Scheme.

Q3. How much do government employees contribute towards the pension corpus under TAPS?
(a) 5% of basic salary
(b) 8% of basic salary
(c) 10% of basic salary
(d) 12% of basic salary
Answer: (c) 10% of basic salary
Explanation: Under TAPS, employees contribute 10% of their basic pay, while the state government bears the remaining pension liability.

Q4. What family pension benefit is provided under TAPS in case of the pensioner’s death?
(a) 40% of last-drawn salary
(b) 50% of last-drawn pension
(c) 60% of last-drawn pension
(d) 75% of last-drawn pension
Answer: (c) 60% of last-drawn pension
Explanation: The scheme provides a family pension equal to 60% of the last-drawn pension to the family in the event of the pensioner’s death.

Q5. According to estimates, what is the approximate one-time contribution the Tamil Nadu government is expected to make to implement TAPS?
(a) ₹5,000 crore
(b) ₹8,000 crore
(c) ₹10,000 crore
(d) ₹13,000 crore
Answer: (d) ₹13,000 crore
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu government is expected to make a one-time contribution of about ₹13,000 crore to the pension fund, along with substantial annual contributions, increasing the state’s committed expenditure.

DRDO’s Sea Water Desalination System (SWaDeS)

Q1. What is the name of the portable water desalination device developed by DRDO for soldiers deployed in water-scarce areas?
(a) Jal Rakshak System
(b) Aqua Purifier-1
(c) Sea Water Desalination System (SWaDeS)
(d) Portable RO Defence Unit
Answer: (c) Sea Water Desalination System (SWaDeS)
Explanation: DRDO has developed a portable desalination device called the Sea Water Desalination System (SWaDeS) to provide drinking water in remote and challenging environments.

Q2. Which DRDO laboratory has developed the SWaDeS device?
(a) Defence Research Laboratory, Tezpur
(b) Defence Bio-Engineering Laboratory, Bengaluru
(c) Defence Laboratory, Jodhpur
(d) Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory, Chandigarh
Answer: (c) Defence Laboratory, Jodhpur
Explanation: The Sea Water Desalination System (SWaDeS) has been developed by DRDO’s Defence Laboratory located in Jodhpur.

Q3. In which of the following locations is SWaDeS specifically designed for use due to saline inland water availability?
(a) Dal Lake, Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Pangong Tso, Ladakh
(c) Loktak Lake, Manipur
(d) Wular Lake, Jammu & Kashmir
Answer: (b) Pangong Tso, Ladakh
Explanation: SWaDeS is designed for deployment in saline inland water zones such as Pangong Tso in Ladakh, a high-altitude lake near the Line of Actual Control.

Q4. What is the maximum salinity level of seawater that the engine-operated version of SWaDeS can treat?
(a) 20,000 mg/L
(b) 25,000 mg/L
(c) 30,000 mg/L
(d) 35,000 mg/L
Answer: (d) 35,000 mg/L
Explanation: The engine-operated version of SWaDeS can treat seawater with salinity levels up to 35,000 mg/L of total dissolved solids and reduce it to safe drinking standards.

Q5. How many soldiers can be supported by the engine-operated version of SWaDeS in terms of drinking water supply?
(a) 5–10 personnel
(b) 10–12 personnel
(c) 15–18 personnel
(d) 20–25 personnel
Answer: (d) 20–25 personnel
Explanation: The engine-driven version of SWaDeS can support the drinking water requirements of about 20–25 soldiers, making it suitable for larger groups and longer deployments.

Kerala Revives Historic Spice Routes: Cultural Tourism & Heritage Initiative

Q1. Where was the inaugural International Spice Routes Conference, during which Kerala announced the revival of historic Spice Routes, held?
(a) Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Kozhikode
(c) Kochi
(d) Thrissur
Answer: (c) Kochi
Explanation: The initiative was announced during the first three-day International Spice Routes Conference held in Kochi, highlighting Kerala’s heritage diplomacy and tourism vision.

Q2. What is the theme of the International Spice Routes Conference organised by Kerala?
(a) Maritime Asia and Trade
(b) Spices and Civilisations
(c) Ancient Trails, New Journeys
(d) Oceans of Commerce
Answer: (c) Ancient Trails, New Journeys
Explanation: The conference was themed ‘Ancient Trails, New Journeys’, focusing on historical spice trade routes and their modern cultural and economic relevance.

Q3. What is the International Spice Routes Heritage Network launched by Kerala mainly intended to promote?
(a) Export of spices
(b) Joint research and heritage preservation
(c) Agricultural reforms
(d) Modern port development
Answer: (b) Joint research and heritage preservation
Explanation: The International Spice Routes Heritage Network aims to promote collaborative research, heritage conservation, archaeology, museums, and archival documentation among countries linked by spice trade.

Q4. Under the Muziris Heritage Project, how many immersive heritage trails branded as ‘spice journeys’ have been introduced in Kerala?
(a) 15
(b) 21
(c) 27
(d) 33
Answer: (d) 33
Explanation: The Muziris Heritage Project has unveiled 33 curated ‘spice journeys’ that combine history, storytelling, and cuisine across different regions of Kerala.

Q5. The ancient Spice Routes were significant because they enabled which of the following beyond trade in commodities?
(a) Only economic exchanges
(b) Military expansion
(c) Cultural, religious, and technological exchanges
(d) Political unification of regions
Answer: (c) Cultural, religious, and technological exchanges
Explanation: The Spice Routes carried not only goods like pepper and cinnamon but also ideas, beliefs, technologies, and cultural practices, shaping societies across Europe, West Asia, Africa, and Asia.

India’s First Hydrogen-Powered Train

Q1. On which route will India’s first hydrogen-powered train begin its trial operations from January 26, 2026?
(a) Delhi–Panipat
(b) Jind–Sonipat
(c) Rohtak–Hisar
(d) Ambala–Karnal
Answer: (b) Jind–Sonipat
Explanation: India’s first hydrogen-powered train is scheduled to begin trial operations on the 90-kilometre Jind–Sonipat route in Haryana.

Q2. What is the primary objective of introducing hydrogen-powered trains by Indian Railways?
(a) Increasing ticket fares
(b) Reducing travel time on premium routes
(c) Reducing diesel dependence and carbon emissions
(d) Promoting tourism circuits
Answer: (c) Reducing diesel dependence and carbon emissions
Explanation: The hydrogen-powered train initiative is part of Indian Railways’ green mobility strategy to cut carbon emissions and reduce reliance on diesel traction.

Q3. Which organisation serves as the technical advisory body for Indian Railways in the hydrogen train project?
(a) ISRO
(b) DRDO
(c) RDSO
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: (c) RDSO
Explanation: The Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO) is the technical advisory body of Indian Railways involved in the development of the hydrogen-powered train.

Q4. What is the key environmental advantage of hydrogen fuel-cell trains?
(a) They emit carbon dioxide in lower quantities
(b) They emit only water vapour and steam
(c) They run entirely on solar energy
(d) They require no fuel storage
Answer: (b) They emit only water vapour and steam
Explanation: Hydrogen fuel-cell trains produce energy through an electrochemical process and emit only water vapour and steam, making them environmentally friendly.

Q5. At what approximate speed range will India’s first hydrogen-powered train operate during its initial trials?
(a) 80–100 kmph
(b) 90–120 kmph
(c) 110–140 kmph
(d) 140–160 kmph
Answer: (c) 110–140 kmph
Explanation: During trial operations, the hydrogen-powered train is expected to run at speeds between 110 and 140 kmph, significantly reducing travel time compared to diesel services.

Renowned Filmmaker Bela Tarr Passes Away

Q1. Bela Tarr, who recently passed away at the age of 70, was a renowned filmmaker from which country?
(a) Poland
(b) Hungary
(c) Romania
(d) Czech Republic
Answer: (b) Hungary
Explanation: Bela Tarr was a celebrated Hungarian filmmaker and a major figure in European arthouse cinema.

Q2. Bela Tarr is widely regarded as a pioneer of which cinematic movement?
(a) Italian Neorealism
(b) French New Wave
(c) Slow cinema
(d) German Expressionism
Answer: (c) Slow cinema
Explanation: Bela Tarr was a leading figure of the “slow cinema” movement, known for long takes, minimal dialogue, and meditative storytelling.

Q3. Which film by Bela Tarr, released in 1994, is known for its exceptional running time of over seven hours?
(a) Werckmeister Harmonies
(b) The Turin Horse
(c) Damnation
(d) Satantango
Answer: (d) Satantango
Explanation: Satantango (1994), running for more than seven-and-a-half hours, is Bela Tarr’s most famous work and one of the longest narrative films ever made.

Q4. After stepping away from feature filmmaking, which institution did Bela Tarr found to train young filmmakers?
(a) European Film Institute, Berlin
(b) Film Factory, Sarajevo
(c) Budapest School of Cinema
(d) Central European Film Academy
Answer: (b) Film Factory, Sarajevo
Explanation: In 2012, Bela Tarr founded the Film Factory school in Sarajevo, where he focused on teaching and mentoring young filmmakers.

Q5. Bela Tarr had been a member of which organisation since 1997, which confirmed his death?
(a) Cannes Film Festival Jury
(b) Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences
(c) European Film Academy
(d) British Film Institute
Answer: (c) European Film Academy
Explanation: The European Film Academy, of which Bela Tarr had been a member since 1997, confirmed his passing and paid tribute to his lasting influence on world cinema.

Release of Critically Endangered Indian Vultures at Melghat

Q1. Where were 15 critically endangered Indian vultures recently released as part of a species recovery programme?
(a) Kanha Tiger Reserve
(b) Pench Tiger Reserve
(c) Melghat Tiger Reserve
(d) Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve
Answer: (c) Melghat Tiger Reserve
Explanation: The vultures were released in the Somthana Range of Melghat Tiger Reserve, a key biodiversity landscape in central India.

Q2. From which conservation facility were the vultures translocated before their release into the wild?
(a) Dehradun Wildlife Institute
(b) Vulture Conservation Breeding Centre, Pinjore
(c) National Zoological Park, Delhi
(d) BNHS Nature Centre, Mumbai
Answer: (b) Vulture Conservation Breeding Centre, Pinjore
Explanation: The vultures were brought from the Vulture Conservation Breeding Centre at Pinjore, where captive breeding of critically endangered vultures is carried out.

Q3. What is the main purpose of keeping vultures in a pre-release aviary before releasing them into the wild?
(a) To train them to hunt
(b) To protect them from predators
(c) To help them adapt to local climate and food conditions
(d) To display them for visitors
Answer: (c) To help them adapt to local climate and food conditions
Explanation: Pre-release acclimatisation helps captive-bred vultures adjust to local terrain, climate, and food availability, improving their survival chances after release.

Q4. Which technology has been used to monitor the movement and survival of the released vultures?
(a) Radio collars only
(b) RFID tags
(c) GSM and satellite tracking devices
(d) Drone-based cameras
Answer: (c) GSM and satellite tracking devices
Explanation: All released vultures were fitted with GSM and satellite tracking devices to allow scientists to monitor their movement patterns and long-term survival.

Q5. The drastic decline of Indian vulture populations in the past was mainly caused by the use of which veterinary drug in cattle?
(a) Ivermectin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Tetracycline
Answer: (c) Diclofenac
Explanation: The widespread use of the veterinary drug diclofenac in cattle led to catastrophic declines in vulture populations, as the drug is toxic to vultures feeding on treated carcasses.

IBBI Introduces Revised Electronic Liquidation Forms

Q1. Which regulatory body has introduced revised electronic forms for the liquidation process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(c) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Answer: (c) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
Explanation: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) regulates insolvency professionals and processes under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code and has introduced revised electronic liquidation forms.

Q2. From which month and year will the revised liquidation forms introduced by IBBI come into effect?
(a) July 2025
(b) January 2026
(c) February 2026
(d) April 2026
Answer: (b) January 2026
Explanation: The revised electronic forms for the liquidation process will come into effect from January 2026 as part of IBBI’s efforts to streamline compliance.

Q3. How many electronic forms will now cover the entire lifecycle of the liquidation process under the revised framework?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer: (c) Four
Explanation: Four forms, namely LIQ-1 to LIQ-4, have been introduced to capture all stages of the liquidation lifecycle from commencement to dissolution.

Q4. Which of the following is a key objective of revising the liquidation process forms by IBBI?
(a) Increasing documentation requirements
(b) Eliminating electronic filing
(c) Reducing duplication and improving data quality
(d) Extending liquidation timelines
Answer: (c) Reducing duplication and improving data quality
Explanation: The revised forms aim to remove duplication, rationalise data requirements, and use technology to auto-populate information, thereby improving filing quality and easing compliance.

Q5. What special relief has IBBI provided to ensure a smooth transition to the revised liquidation forms?
(a) Waiver of filing requirements
(b) Extension of liquidation timelines
(c) Penalty relief for delayed filings during January–March 2026
(d) Permanent acceptance of old forms
Answer: (c) Penalty relief for delayed filings during January–March 2026
Explanation: To facilitate smooth implementation, IBBI has granted penalty relief for delayed filings during the January–March 2026 quarter while transitioning to the new electronic forms.

Uttar Pradesh Cabinet Approves Stamp Duty Concession on Gift Deeds

Q1. What major reform has been approved by the Uttar Pradesh Cabinet regarding gift deeds of property?
(a) Complete exemption from stamp duty
(b) Reduction of registration fees only
(c) Capping stamp duty at ₹5,000 for intra-family transfers
(d) Mandatory valuation by central agencies
Answer: (c) Capping stamp duty at ₹5,000 for intra-family transfers
Explanation: The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet has approved a reform to cap stamp duty at ₹5,000 on gift deeds for property transfers within families to reduce transaction costs and encourage legal documentation.

Q2. Which categories of properties are now covered under the concessional stamp duty on gift deeds in Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Only agricultural land
(b) Agricultural and residential properties
(c) Residential and commercial properties
(d) Agricultural, residential, commercial, and industrial properties
Answer: (d) Agricultural, residential, commercial, and industrial properties
Explanation: The concession, earlier limited to agricultural and residential properties, has now been extended to include commercial and industrial properties as well.

Q3. Under which law is stamp duty on gift deeds of immovable property governed in India?
(a) Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(b) Registration Act, 1908
(c) Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(d) Companies Act, 2013
Answer: (c) Indian Stamp Act, 1899
Explanation: Stamp duty on gift deeds and other instruments relating to immovable property is governed by the Indian Stamp Act, 1899.

Q4. Which Act makes registration of gift deeds mandatory in India?
(a) Indian Contract Act, 1872
(b) Registration Act, 1908
(c) Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(d) Specific Relief Act, 1963
Answer: (b) Registration Act, 1908
Explanation: The Registration Act, 1908, mandates registration of gift deeds to ensure legal validity and transparency of property transfers.

Q5. What is one of the key objectives of extending stamp duty concession to commercial and industrial properties in Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Increasing government revenue
(b) Encouraging informal family settlements
(c) Promoting transparency and ease of doing business
(d) Restricting property ownership transfers
Answer: (c) Promoting transparency and ease of doing business
Explanation: By lowering stamp duty for intra-family transfers of commercial and industrial assets, the government aims to reduce disputes, promote transparent ownership transitions, and improve ease of doing business.

Supreme Court on Speedy Trial & Bail under Article 21

Q1. The Supreme Court has reiterated that the right to speedy trial under Article 21 applies to whom?
A) Only to accused in minor offences
B) Only to first-time offenders
C) To every accused person irrespective of the offence
D) Only to cases not covered by special laws
Answer: C) To every accused person irrespective of the offence
Explanation: The Supreme Court held that the fundamental right to speedy trial under Article 21 is universal and is not nullified by the seriousness or category of the offence.

Q2. In which case did the Supreme Court recently grant bail while emphasising the right to speedy trial?
A) Umar Khalid UAPA case
B) Sharjeel Imam UAPA case
C) Arvind Dham money laundering case
D) Vijay Mallya extradition case
Answer: C) Arvind Dham money laundering case
Explanation: The Court granted bail to former Amtek Group chairperson Arvind Dham, observing that prolonged pre-trial detention violated Article 21.

Q3. Which Articles of the Constitution guarantees the right to life, personal liberty, and speedy trial?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 20
D) Article 21
Answer: D) Article 21
Explanation: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution includes the right to speedy trial as an integral part of life and personal liberty.

Q4. How long was Arvind Dham in custody before being granted bail by the Supreme Court?
A) About 6 months
B) About 10 months
C) About 16 months
D) Over 3 years
Answer: C) About 16 months
Explanation: The Court noted that Arvind Dham had spent nearly 16 months in custody with no real likelihood of the trial commencing soon.

Q5. Which factor did the Supreme Court highlight while granting bail to Arvind Dham?
A) Accused was a senior citizen
B) Evidence was mainly documentary and already with prosecution
C) Trial had already begun
D) Charges were minor in nature
Answer: B) Evidence was mainly documentary and already with prosecution
Explanation: Since the evidence was documentary and in the custody of the prosecution, the risk of tampering was minimal.

Q6. Which section of the PMLA contains the “twin conditions” for granting bail?
A) Section 24
B) Section 35
C) Section 43
D) Section 45
Answer: D) Section 45
Explanation: Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act lays down stringent twin conditions that courts must consider while granting bail.

Q7. Under which section does UAPA impose stricter bail conditions in terror-related cases?
A) Section 19
B) Section 25
C) Section 43D(5)
D) Section 45
Answer: C) Section 43D(5)
Explanation: Section 43D(5) of UAPA restricts bail if accusations appear prima facie true.

Q8. What key principle did the Supreme Court emphasise regarding statutory bail restrictions?
A) They override constitutional rights
B) They apply only to special courts
C) They can justify indefinite pre-trial detention
D) They cannot defeat constitutional guarantees under Article 21
Answer: D) They cannot defeat constitutional guarantees under Article 21
Explanation: The Court clarified that statutory bail restrictions cannot be used to justify endless undertrial detention when trials are unreasonably delayed.

Q9. Why did the judgment attract attention in public debate?
A) It overturned UAPA completely
B) It followed a recent denial of bail in UAPA cases
C) It reduced punishment for money laundering
D) It declared PMLA unconstitutional
Answer: B) It followed a recent denial of bail in UAPA cases
Explanation: The ruling came soon after the Supreme Court denied bail to Umar Khalid and Sharjeel Imam, highlighting different applications of delay in trial as a ground for bail.

Q10. What broader message does this judgment send for criminal justice administration?
A) Serious offences must always deny bail
B) Delay alone is never relevant
C) Pre-trial detention should not become punitive
D) Bail should be automatic after one year
Answer: C) Pre-trial detention should not become punitive
Explanation: The Supreme Court stressed that when trials do not progress within a reasonable time, continued incarceration violates fundamental rights and risks turning detention into punishment.

NASA’s IXPE Study of White Dwarf System EX Hydrae

Q1. Which NASA mission enabled scientists to study the internal geometry of the white dwarf system EX Hydrae for the first time?
(a) Chandra X-ray Observatory
(b) James Webb Space Telescope
(c) Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE)
(d) Hubble Space Telescope
Answer: (c) Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE)
Explanation: IXPE is designed to measure the polarisation of X-rays, allowing scientists to study the geometry and physical processes inside compact objects like white dwarf systems.

Q2. What type of stellar object is EX Hydrae?
(a) Neutron star
(b) Black hole
(c) Red giant star
(d) White dwarf
Answer: (d) White dwarf
Explanation: EX Hydrae is a white dwarf, which is the dense remnant left behind after a Sun-like star exhausts its nuclear fuel.

Q3. EX Hydrae belongs to which rare class of binary star systems?
(a) X-ray binaries
(b) Cataclysmic variables
(c) Intermediate polars
(d) Contact binaries
Answer: (c) Intermediate polars
Explanation: Intermediate polars are systems in which the white dwarf has a moderately strong magnetic field that disrupts, but does not completely destroy, the accretion disc.

Q4. What key new information did IXPE observations reveal about EX Hydrae?
(a) Exact mass of the companion star
(b) Chemical composition of the white dwarf
(c) Height and structure of the superheated gas column
(d) Age of the binary system
Answer: (c) Height and structure of the superheated gas column
Explanation: IXPE data showed that the column of superheated gas above the white dwarf extends nearly 2,000 miles and that some X-rays are reflected from the star’s surface.

Q5. Why is the IXPE study of EX Hydrae important for future astrophysical research?
(a) It confirms the existence of dark matter
(b) It allows direct imaging of distant stars
(c) It shows how X-ray polarimetry can refine models of extreme systems
(d) It proves white dwarfs can become black holes
Answer: (c) It shows how X-ray polarimetry can refine models of extreme systems
Explanation: The study demonstrates that X-ray polarimetry can reveal structures and physical processes in extreme objects like white dwarfs, neutron stars, and black holes, improving theoretical models.

Urdu Compilation of PM Modi’s Independence Day Speeches

Q1. Who released the Urdu book compiling Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s Independence Day speeches from 2014 to 2025?
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Union Home Minister Amit Shah
(c) Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan
(d) President of India
Answer: (c) Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan
Explanation: The Urdu compilation of Prime Minister Modi’s Independence Day speeches was released by Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan to promote linguistic inclusion.

Q2. What is the title of the Urdu book containing Prime Minister Modi’s Red Fort speeches?
(a) Naya Bharat: Modi Ke Vichar
(b) Khutbat-e-Modi: Lal Qila Ki Faseel Se
(c) Azadi Ke Sandesh
(d) Bharat Ki Baat
Answer: (b) Khutbat-e-Modi: Lal Qila Ki Faseel Se
Explanation: The book is titled “Khutbat-e-Modi: Lal Qila Ki Faseel Se” and includes Independence Day speeches delivered from the Red Fort.

Q3. Which organisation published the Urdu compilation of the Prime Minister’s speeches?
(a) Sahitya Akademi
(b) National Book Trust
(c) National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL)
(d) Central Institute of Indian Languages
Answer: (c) National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL)
Explanation: The book was brought out by NCPUL, an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education dedicated to the promotion and preservation of Urdu.

Q4. The term “Antyodaya”, frequently highlighted in the Red Fort speeches, refers to which idea?
(a) Urban infrastructure development
(b) Digital governance reforms
(c) Upliftment of the poorest and last person in society
(d) Promotion of private sector growth
Answer: (c) Upliftment of the poorest and last person in society
Explanation: Antyodaya is a governance principle focused on improving the welfare of the most disadvantaged sections of society.

Q5. What is the primary objective of publishing the Prime Minister’s Independence Day speeches in Urdu?
(a) To replace existing Hindi editions
(b) To promote tourism and culture
(c) To widen access and strengthen linguistic inclusion in public communication
(d) To revise government policies
Answer: (c) To widen access and strengthen linguistic inclusion in public communication
Explanation: The Urdu publication aims to enable Urdu readers to directly engage with key national addresses, supporting language equity and broader public participation in national discourse.

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