3-4 March 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

3-4 March – Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

• 1789 – The United States Congress met for the first time under the new U.S. Constitution in New York City.
• 1933 – Franklin D. Roosevelt was inaugurated as the 32nd President of the United States during the Great Depression.
• 1946 – Winston Churchill delivered his famous “Iron Curtain” speech at Westminster College, highlighting the division of Europe after World War II.

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3-4 March 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Death of Former Union Minister K P Unnikrishnan

Q1. K P Unnikrishnan was a six-time Member of Parliament from which Lok Sabha constituency?
(a) Kozhikode
(b) Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Vadakara
(d) Kannur
Answer: Vadakara
Explanation: K P Unnikrishnan represented the Vadakara constituency in Kerala for six consecutive Lok Sabha terms, reflecting strong political support in the region.

Q2. K P Unnikrishnan served as Union Minister under which Prime Minister?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) V P Singh
(c) P V Narasimha Rao
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer: V P Singh
Explanation: In 1989, Unnikrishnan joined the Union Cabinet under Prime Minister V P Singh and handled key portfolios.

Q3. Which ministries were handled by K P Unnikrishnan during 1989–90?
(a) Home Affairs and Defence
(b) Finance and Commerce
(c) Surface Transport and Communications
(d) Agriculture and Rural Development
Answer: Surface Transport and Communications
Explanation: He served as Union Minister for Surface Transport and Communications during 1989–90, a period that included the Gulf War crisis.

Q4. The Gulf War (1990–91) is significant in Indian history mainly because it led to which major operation?
(a) Operation Vijay
(b) Operation Meghdoot
(c) Large-scale evacuation of Indians from conflict zone
(d) Pokhran-II nuclear tests
Answer: Large-scale evacuation of Indians from conflict zone
Explanation: During the Gulf War, India conducted one of its largest civilian evacuation operations to bring back stranded Indian citizens.

Q5. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of Parliament is mainly responsible for examining which of the following?
(a) Constitutional amendments
(b) Foreign policy decisions
(c) Government expenditure and audit reports
(d) Election disputes
Answer: Government expenditure and audit reports
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee examines government expenditure and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) to ensure financial accountability.

Tamil Nadu Leads India in Deceased Organ Donation in 2026

Q1. Which Indian state recorded 57 deceased organ donors in the first two months of 2026, leading the country?
(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer: Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Tamil Nadu recorded 57 deceased organ donors in January–February 2026, reaffirming its position as India’s leading state in deceased organ donation.

Q2. The deceased organ donation programme in Tamil Nadu is overseen by which authority?
(a) NOTTO
(b) Indian Council of Medical Research
(c) Transtan
(d) National Health Authority
Answer: Transtan
Explanation: The programme is managed by the Transplant Authority of Tamil Nadu (Transtan), which has developed a structured and transparent organ allocation system.

Q3. In which year did Tamil Nadu formalise its structured deceased organ donation system?
(a) 2005
(b) 2008
(c) 2010
(d) 2012
Answer: 2008
Explanation: Tamil Nadu began formalising its deceased organ donation framework in 2008, making it one of the earliest organised state-level models in India.

Q4. What is the purpose of creating ‘green corridors’ in organ transplantation?
(a) To promote tree plantation drives
(b) To provide free ambulance services
(c) To ensure rapid transport of organs between hospitals
(d) To reduce hospital waste
Answer: To ensure rapid transport of organs between hospitals
Explanation: Green corridors are special traffic arrangements coordinated with police to enable quick and uninterrupted transport of harvested organs.

Q5. Government Order 331 in Tamil Nadu is related to which of the following?
(a) Financial incentives for donors
(b) Insurance coverage for transplant patients
(c) State honours for deceased organ donors
(d) Mandatory organ donation policy
Answer: State honours for deceased organ donors
Explanation: Government Order 331 mandates state honours for deceased organ donors, recognising their noble contribution while maintaining that donation remains voluntary and without monetary incentives.

CBIC Introduces Deferred Customs Duty Payment Scheme for Eligible Manufacturer Importers (EMIs)

Q1. Which authority introduced the Deferred Customs Duty Payment scheme for Eligible Manufacturer Importers (EMIs)?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
(c) SEBI
(d) Ministry of Commerce
Answer: Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
Explanation: The scheme was introduced by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) to facilitate trusted manufacturers by allowing deferred payment of Customs duty.

Q2. Under the EMI scheme, when can eligible importers pay Customs duty on imported goods?
(a) At the time of placing the import order
(b) At the time of clearance
(c) On a monthly basis after clearance
(d) At the end of the financial year
Answer: On a monthly basis after clearance
Explanation: EMIs can clear goods without paying duty immediately and instead pay the applicable Customs duty monthly under the Deferred Payment of Import Duty Rules, 2016.

Q3. The EMI scheme will remain operational for which period?
(a) 1 April 2025 to 31 March 2027
(b) 1 March 2026 to 31 March 2029
(c) 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2028
(d) 1 January 2026 to 31 December 2028
Answer: 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2028
Explanation: The scheme is a time-bound reform and will be valid from 1 April 2026 until 31 March 2028.

Q4. Existing entities under which programme are automatically eligible to apply for the EMI facility, subject to conditions?
(a) Startup India Scheme
(b) Make in India Programme
(c) Authorised Economic Operator (AEO-T1) Programme
(d) Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme
Answer: Authorised Economic Operator (AEO-T1) Programme
Explanation: Existing AEO-T1 entities, including MSMEs, can apply for the EMI facility if they meet the notified compliance and financial criteria.

Q5. The Deferred Payment of Import Duty Rules were originally notified in which year?
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017
Answer: 2016
Explanation: The Deferred Payment of Import Duty Rules were notified in 2016, forming the legal basis for the EMI deferred duty payment mechanism.

25th Foundation Day of Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)

Q1. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) was established under which Act?
(a) Electricity Act, 2003
(b) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(c) Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(d) National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
Answer: Energy Conservation Act, 2001
Explanation: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency was set up under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, to promote energy efficiency and conservation across sectors in India.

Q2. The 25th Foundation Day of BEE was celebrated at which venue?
(a) Vigyan Bhawan
(b) India Habitat Centre
(c) Bharat Mandapam
(d) Rashtrapati Bhavan
Answer: India Habitat Centre
Explanation: The event was held at the India Habitat Centre in New Delhi, with senior policymakers and stakeholders in attendance.

Q3. Which scheme is a market-based mechanism aimed at improving industrial energy efficiency?
(a) UJALA Scheme
(b) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme
(c) PM-KUSUM Scheme
(d) National Solar Mission
Answer: Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme
Explanation: The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market-based mechanism that sets energy efficiency targets for industries and allows trading of energy-saving certificates.

Q4. Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) norms are related to which sector?
(a) Power generation
(b) Building construction
(c) Automobile sector
(d) Agriculture
Answer: Automobile sector
Explanation: CAFE norms regulate fuel consumption standards for vehicles, promoting improved fuel efficiency and reduced emissions in the transport sector.

Q5. India has set a target to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by which year?
(a) 2047
(b) 2050
(c) 2060
(d) 2070
Answer: 2070
Explanation: India has committed to achieving net-zero emissions by 2070 as part of its long-term climate action strategy.

Indian Bison Fest 2026 at Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary

Q1. The second edition of the ‘Indian Bison Fest’ will be hosted at which wildlife sanctuary?
(a) Similipal Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Satkosia Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer: Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation: The festival will be held at Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary, highlighting conservation of the Indian bison (gaur) in the Debrigarh-Hirakud landscape.

Q2. The Indian bison is scientifically known as which of the following?
(a) Bos indicus
(b) Bos taurus
(c) Bos gaurus
(d) Bubalus bubalis
Answer: Bos gaurus
Explanation: The Indian bison, commonly called gaur, has the scientific name Bos gaurus and is one of the largest wild cattle species in the world.

Q3. Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located near which major reservoir in Odisha?
(a) Chilika Lake
(b) Indravati Reservoir
(c) Hirakud Reservoir
(d) Rengali Reservoir
Answer: Hirakud Reservoir
Explanation: The sanctuary is situated near the Hirakud Reservoir, forming part of the Debrigarh-Hirakud conservation landscape.

Q4. According to the latest gaur census in January, what was the recorded gaur population in Debrigarh?
(a) 658
(b) 720
(c) 848
(d) 1,020
Answer: 848
Explanation: The most recent census recorded 848 gaurs, showing a significant increase of 190 animals within one year, indicating successful conservation efforts.

Q5. Eco Development Committees (EDCs) are primarily associated with which objective?
(a) Industrial development in forest areas
(b) Community-based conservation around protected areas
(c) Mining regulation in wildlife zones
(d) Urban infrastructure planning
Answer: Community-based conservation around protected areas
Explanation: Eco Development Committees support local community participation in conservation activities, helping balance eco-tourism, livelihood generation and wildlife protection.

Saba Shawl Appointed as First Woman Superintendent of Central Jail Srinagar

Q1. Who has been appointed as the first Kashmiri woman Superintendent of Central Jail Srinagar?
(a) Sheikh Zulfkar Azad
(b) Saba Shawl
(c) Rubina Akhter
(d) Nighat Mir
Answer: Saba Shawl
Explanation: Saba Shawl has become the first Kashmiri woman to head the high-security Central Jail Srinagar, marking a milestone for women in uniformed services in Jammu and Kashmir.

Q2. Saba Shawl cleared which examination to enter the Prisons Department in 2012?
(a) UPSC Civil Services Examination
(b) SSC CGL Examination
(c) JKPSC Examination
(d) CAPF Examination
Answer: JKPSC Examination
Explanation: She cleared the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission (JKPSC) examination in 2012 and secured the lone open merit position for Superintendent of Police (Prisons).

Q3. Saba Shawl holds a master’s degree in which field?
(a) Public Administration
(b) Law
(c) Social Work
(d) Criminology
Answer: Social Work
Explanation: She completed her master’s degree in Social Work, which provided her with a background in community welfare and reform-oriented approaches.

Q4. Her appointment was formalised under which Government Order?
(a) Government Order No. 125-Home of 2026
(b) Government Order No. 145-Home of 2026
(c) Government Order No. 150-Home of 2025
(d) Government Order No. 160-Home of 2026
Answer: Government Order No. 145-Home of 2026
Explanation: The transfer and appointment were formalised under Government Order No. 145-Home of 2026 dated March 2, 2026, with immediate effect.

Q5. Central Jail Srinagar is best described as which of the following?
(a) Open prison facility
(b) Juvenile correction home
(c) High-security correctional facility
(d) Women-only detention centre
Answer: High-security correctional facility
Explanation: Central Jail Srinagar is one of the most sensitive high-security correctional facilities in Jammu and Kashmir, requiring strong administrative and security oversight.

Tamil Nadu Inaugurates First Dark Sky Park at Ariyur Shola Reserve Forest

Q1. Tamil Nadu’s first Dark Sky Park has been established at which location?
(a) Ooty Hills
(b) Yercaud
(c) Ariyur Shola Reserve Forest, Kolli Hills
(d) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve
Answer: Ariyur Shola Reserve Forest, Kolli Hills
Explanation: The Dark Sky Park has been set up at Ariyur Shola Reserve Forest in Kolli Hills, Namakkal district, to promote astro-tourism and scientific observation.

Q2. Kolli Hills is located in which district of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Namakkal
(c) Salem
(d) Dindigul
Answer: Namakkal
Explanation: Kolli Hills is situated in Namakkal district and was selected due to its high altitude and minimal light pollution.

Q3. What is the primary objective of establishing a Dark Sky Park?
(a) Promote wildlife safaris
(b) Encourage industrial development
(c) Promote astronomical observation with minimal light pollution
(d) Develop adventure sports
Answer: Promote astronomical observation with minimal light pollution
Explanation: Dark Sky Parks are designated areas with very low artificial light, allowing clear observation of celestial bodies like stars, planets and the Milky Way.

Q4. The Dark Sky Park project in Tamil Nadu was established at an approximate cost of:
(a) ₹50 lakh
(b) ₹75 lakh
(c) ₹1 crore
(d) ₹2 crore
Answer: ₹1 crore
Explanation: The park was developed with an investment of about ₹1 crore and includes advanced telescopes and solar-powered infrastructure.

Q5. The park will primarily operate between which months for optimal sky visibility?
(a) July to December
(b) January 15 to June 15
(c) March to September
(d) August to January
Answer: January 15 to June 15
Explanation: The park will function mainly from January 15 to June 15, when clear skies ensure better astronomical observation, and will remain closed during the monsoon season.

Finland President Alexander Stubb’s Official Visit to India and Raisina Dialogue 2026

Q1. Finland’s President Alexander Stubb will serve as Chief Guest at which major international conference in New Delhi?
(a) G20 Summit
(b) Raisina Dialogue
(c) Vibrant Gujarat Summit
(d) Shangri-La Dialogue
Answer: Raisina Dialogue
Explanation: President Alexander Stubb will attend the Raisina Dialogue as Chief Guest and deliver the keynote address at India’s premier geopolitics conference.

Q2. The Raisina Dialogue is primarily associated with discussions on which subject?
(a) Agricultural reforms
(b) Sports diplomacy
(c) Geopolitics and strategic affairs
(d) Space exploration
Answer: Geopolitics and strategic affairs
Explanation: The Raisina Dialogue is India’s flagship conference focusing on geopolitics, geo-economics and global strategic issues.

Q3. India and Finland established diplomatic relations in which year?
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1956
(d) 1962
Answer: 1949
Explanation: India and Finland formally established diplomatic relations in 1949, strengthening cooperation in political and economic fields.

Q4. Finland is a member of which of the following organisations?
(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) European Union and NATO
(d) African Union
Answer: European Union and NATO
Explanation: Finland is a member of both the European Union (EU) and NATO, making it an important strategic partner for India in the Nordic and European regions.

Q5. The Nordic region includes which of the following countries?
(a) Finland, Sweden, Norway, Denmark and Iceland
(b) Finland, Germany, Poland, Denmark and Iceland
(c) Sweden, France, Norway, Spain and Iceland
(d) Denmark, Italy, Finland, Greece and Norway
Answer: Finland, Sweden, Norway, Denmark and Iceland
Explanation: The Nordic region consists of Finland, Sweden, Norway, Denmark and Iceland, and Finland plays a key role in India’s engagement with this region.

Scotland Legalises Water Cremation (Alkaline Hydrolysis)

Q1. Which nation in the United Kingdom has become the first to legalise water cremation (alkaline hydrolysis)?
(a) England
(b) Wales
(c) Scotland
(d) Northern Ireland
Answer: Scotland
Explanation: Scotland has become the first nation in the United Kingdom to legalise alkaline hydrolysis, marking a major reform in funeral legislation.

Q2. Alkaline hydrolysis is commonly known by which of the following names?
(a) Green burial
(b) Water cremation
(c) Flame cremation
(d) Natural composting
Answer: Water cremation
Explanation: Alkaline hydrolysis is also called water cremation or aquamation and is considered a more environmentally friendly alternative to traditional cremation.

Q3. Which chemical is primarily used in the process of alkaline hydrolysis?
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Potassium hydroxide
(d) Ammonium nitrate
Answer: Potassium hydroxide
Explanation: The process uses a heated alkaline solution containing potassium hydroxide to accelerate natural decomposition.

Q4. Cremation was first introduced in Scotland in which year?
(a) 1885
(b) 1902
(c) 1920
(d) 1947
Answer: 1902
Explanation: Cremation was introduced in Scotland in 1902, and the new reform is considered the most significant change since then.

Q5. Which of the following is a key environmental advantage of water cremation over flame-based cremation?
(a) Higher energy consumption
(b) Increased land use
(c) Direct release of mercury emissions
(d) Lower carbon footprint
Answer: Lower carbon footprint
Explanation: Water cremation consumes less energy and does not release direct emissions like carbon dioxide or mercury, making it a more sustainable option.

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