26 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

26 February– Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

• 1885 – The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded in Bombay (now Mumbai), playing a key role in India’s freedom movement.
• 1936 – Adolf Hitler ordered the reoccupation of the Rhineland, violating the Treaty of Versailles.
• 1966 – India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna (India’s highest civilian award).

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26 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Banglar Yuva Sathi Scheme 2026 Launched by West Bengal Government

Q1. Which state government has launched the Banglar Yuva Sathi Scheme 2026?
(a) Odisha
(b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal
(d) Assam
Answer: West Bengal
Explanation: The Banglar Yuva Sathi Scheme 2026 has been introduced by the Government of West Bengal to provide financial support to unemployed youth in the state.

Q2. What is the monthly allowance provided under the Banglar Yuva Sathi Scheme 2026?
(a) ₹1,000
(b) ₹1,200
(c) ₹1,500
(d) ₹2,000
Answer: ₹1,500
Explanation: Under this scheme, eligible unemployed youth will receive a monthly financial assistance of ₹1,500 as temporary support while seeking employment.

Q3. The Banglar Yuva Sathi Scheme 2026 will officially be implemented from which date?
(a) February 15, 2026
(b) March 1, 2026
(c) April 1, 2026
(d) August 1, 2026
Answer: April 1, 2026
Explanation: Although initially planned for August, the scheme has been advanced and will officially launch from April 1, 2026.

Q4. What is the eligible age group for applicants under the Banglar Yuva Sathi Scheme 2026?
(a) 18–35 years
(b) 21–40 years
(c) 25–45 years
(d) 18–40 years
Answer: 21–40 years
Explanation: Applicants must be permanent residents of West Bengal and fall within the age group of 21 to 40 years to qualify for the scheme.

Q5. What is the minimum educational qualification required to apply for the Banglar Yuva Sathi Scheme 2026?
(a) Class 8 pass
(b) Class 10 pass
(c) Class 12 pass
(d) Graduate degree
Answer: Class 10 pass
Explanation: Candidates must have passed at least the Class 10 (Secondary) examination and must be unemployed at the time of application.

Delhi Launches CM Jan Sunwai Portal for Digital Grievance Redressal

Q1. Who launched the ‘CM Jan Sunwai Portal’ in Delhi?
(a) Arvind Kejriwal
(b) Rekha Gupta
(c) Vinai Kumar Saxena
(d) Atishi
Answer: Rekha Gupta
Explanation: Delhi Chief Minister Rekha Gupta launched the CM Jan Sunwai Portal and mobile application to strengthen digital grievance redressal in the National Capital Territory.

Q2. The CM Jan Sunwai Portal primarily aims to improve which of the following?
(a) Online education services
(b) Digital tax collection
(c) Grievance redressal system
(d) Police recruitment process
Answer: Grievance redressal system
Explanation: The portal is a unified, technology-driven platform designed to allow citizens to submit and track complaints against any Delhi government department.

Q3. The grievance redressal system under the CM Jan Sunwai Portal follows which type of mechanism?
(a) Two-tier system
(b) Three-tier system
(c) Four-tier system
(d) Single-window system
Answer: Three-tier system
Explanation: The portal includes a three-tier mechanism—Grievance Redressal Officer, Appellate Authority, and Final Appellate Authority—to ensure accountability and proper monitoring.

Q4. Which of the following has been made mandatory for EWS school admissions under the new system?
(a) PAN-based verification
(b) Voter ID verification
(c) Aadhaar-based verification
(d) Passport verification
Answer: Aadhaar-based verification
Explanation: The Delhi government has introduced Aadhaar-based identity verification and digital verification of birth and income certificates to prevent duplication and fraud in EWS admissions.

Q5. Approximately how many Common Service Centres (CSCs) are integrated with Delhi’s e-District services?
(a) 3,000
(b) 5,000
(c) 7,000
(d) 10,000
Answer: 7,000
Explanation: More than 7,000 Common Service Centres across Delhi have been integrated with e-District services, linking 75 public services to strengthen digital governance and accessibility.

Rajasthan Homestay (Paying Guest House) Scheme – 2026

Q1. Which state government has launched the ‘Rajasthan Homestay (Paying Guest House) Scheme – 2026’?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: Rajasthan
Explanation: The Rajasthan Tourism Department has introduced the Rajasthan Homestay Scheme – 2026 to promote tourism, rural income and self-employment.

Q2. Under the Rajasthan Homestay Scheme – 2026, what is the maximum number of rooms permitted per residential unit?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Eight
(d) Ten
Answer: Eight
Explanation: The revised scheme has increased the maximum number of rooms from five to eight per residential unit to encourage higher participation and capacity.

Q3. What is the maximum bed capacity allowed per homestay unit under the new scheme?
(a) 16
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 30
Answer: 24
Explanation: The policy fixes the maximum bed capacity at 24 per homestay unit, ensuring regulated expansion while maintaining safety standards.

Q4. Which major reform has been introduced in the approval process of the Rajasthan Homestay Scheme – 2026?
(a) Mandatory police clearance
(b) Multiple departmental approvals
(c) Offline manual registration only
(d) Single-window digital approval system
Answer: Single-window digital approval system
Explanation: The earlier requirement of multiple clearances has been replaced by a simplified single-window digital system for faster and easier approvals.

Q5. Approximately how many tourists visited Rajasthan in 2025 according to official data?
(a) 20 crore
(b) 22.5 crore
(c) 25.44 crore
(d) 30 crore
Answer: 25.44 crore
Explanation: Official figures show that over 25.44 crore tourists visited Rajasthan in 2025, reflecting a 9.74% rise compared to the previous year.

Jatinder Mehra – Veteran Steel Industry Leader Passes Away

Q1. Jatinder Mehra was primarily associated with which sector?
(a) Textile Industry
(b) Information Technology
(c) Steel and Metals Industry
(d) Automobile Industry
Answer: Steel and Metals Industry
Explanation: Jatinder Mehra had over six decades of experience in India’s steel and metals sector and played a key role in both public and private steel enterprises.

Q2. Jatinder Mehra served as Vice Chairman of the Metals and Mining Division at which company?
(a) Tata Steel
(b) JSW Steel
(c) Essar Group
(d) ArcelorMittal
Answer: Essar Group
Explanation: At the Essar Group, Mehra provided strategic leadership in expanding steelmaking capacity, especially at Hazira in Gujarat.

Q3. Jatinder Mehra earlier served as Executive Director of which Maharatna PSU?
(a) ONGC
(b) BHEL
(c) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
(d) NTPC
Answer: Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
Explanation: Mehra held a senior leadership role at SAIL, which is a Maharatna Public Sector Undertaking under the Government of India.

Q4. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) operates which major steel plant?
(a) Bhilai Steel Plant
(b) Bokaro Steel Plant
(c) Rourkela Steel Plant
(d) Vizag Steel Plant
Answer: Vizag Steel Plant
Explanation: Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited operates the Vizag Steel Plant located in Andhra Pradesh, where Mehra served as Chairman-cum-Managing Director.

Q5. Which organization conferred the Lifetime Achievement Award on Jatinder Mehra in 2022?
(a) Confederation of Indian Industry
(b) Ministry of Steel
(c) Indian Steel Association
(d) FICCI
Answer: Indian Steel Association
Explanation: The Indian Steel Association honoured Jatinder Mehra with the Lifetime Achievement Award in 2022 for his significant contribution to India’s steel industry.

OpenAI Appoints Arvind KC as Chief People Officer

Q1. Who has been appointed as the Chief People Officer of OpenAI?
(a) Jason Kwon
(b) Arvind KC
(c) Fidji Simo
(d) Julia Villagra
Answer: Arvind KC
Explanation: OpenAI appointed Indian-origin executive Arvind KC as its Chief People Officer to strengthen leadership during rapid expansion.

Q2. Arvind KC will report directly to which senior official at OpenAI?
(a) Sam Altman
(b) Fidji Simo
(c) Jason Kwon
(d) Mira Murati
Answer: Jason Kwon
Explanation: Arvind KC will report to Jason Kwon, who serves as the Chief Strategy Officer at OpenAI.

Q3. Which of the following companies has Arvind KC previously worked at?
(a) Microsoft
(b) Tesla
(c) Roblox
(d) Intel
Answer: Roblox
Explanation: Arvind KC has held senior leadership roles at major technology firms including Roblox, Google, Palantir Technologies and Meta Platforms.

Q4. The role of a Chief People Officer (CPO) mainly focuses on which of the following areas?
(a) Financial auditing
(b) Product coding
(c) Human resource strategy and organisational development
(d) Cybersecurity operations
Answer: Human resource strategy and organisational development
Explanation: The Chief People Officer oversees hiring, talent strategy, leadership development and organisational policies to align workforce management with company goals.

Q5. Arvind KC completed his MBA from which university?
(a) Harvard University
(b) Stanford University
(c) Santa Clara University
(d) University of California, Berkeley
Answer: Santa Clara University
Explanation: Arvind KC earned his MBA from Santa Clara University, combining management education with his engineering background.

Supreme Court Rules Aadhaar Cannot Be Used as Proof of Citizenship

Q1. The Supreme Court recently clarified that Aadhaar can be used as proof of which of the following?
(a) Citizenship
(b) Residence only
(c) Identity only
(d) Voter eligibility
Answer: Identity only
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India ruled that Aadhaar serves only as proof of identity and cannot be used to claim Indian citizenship.

Q2. The Supreme Court invoked which Article of the Constitution to treat supplementary voter lists as part of the final electoral roll?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 136
(c) Article 142
(d) Article 356
Answer: Article 142
Explanation: Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders necessary for doing complete justice. The Court used this provision to integrate supplementary lists with the final voter list.

Q3. The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls mentioned in the case is conducted by which constitutional body?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Law Commission of India
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: Election Commission of India
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting periodic revision of electoral rolls across the country.

Q4. Aadhaar is governed by which legislation?
(a) Citizenship Act, 1955
(b) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(c) Aadhaar Act, 2016
(d) National Population Register Act
Answer: Aadhaar Act, 2016
Explanation: Aadhaar is regulated under the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and is legally recognised as proof of identity, not proof of citizenship.

Q5. The Supreme Court permitted deployment of judicial officers from neighbouring states like which of the following for voter verification work?
(a) Bihar and Assam
(b) Jharkhand and Odisha
(c) Chhattisgarh and Telangana
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
Answer: Jharkhand and Odisha
Explanation: To ensure timely scrutiny of voter documents in West Bengal, the Court allowed additional judicial officers to be requisitioned from Jharkhand and Odisha if necessary.

Tomas Martin Etcheverry Wins Maiden ATP 500 Rio Open Title

Q1. Which Argentine tennis player won his maiden ATP Tour title at the Rio Open?
(a) Diego Schwartzman
(b) Francisco Cerundolo
(c) Tomas Martin Etcheverry
(d) Sebastian Baez
Answer: Tomas Martin Etcheverry
Explanation: Tomas Martin Etcheverry clinched his first ATP Tour title by winning the ATP 500 Rio Open in Brazil.

Q2. The Rio Open belongs to which category of ATP tournaments?
(a) ATP 250
(b) ATP 500
(c) ATP Masters 1000
(d) Grand Slam
Answer: ATP 500
Explanation: The Rio Open is an ATP 500 event, and the singles champion earns 500 ranking points.

Q3. Etcheverry defeated which player in the final of the Rio Open?
(a) Cristian Garin
(b) Nicolas Jarry
(c) Alejandro Tabilo
(d) Carlos Alcaraz
Answer: Alejandro Tabilo
Explanation: In the final, Etcheverry defeated Chile’s Alejandro Tabilo in a three-set match to secure his maiden ATP title.

Q4. After winning the Rio Open, Etcheverry rose to which ATP singles ranking?
(a) World No. 25
(b) World No. 33
(c) World No. 40
(d) World No. 18
Answer: World No. 33
Explanation: Following his victory, Etcheverry jumped 18 places to reach World No. 33 in the ATP rankings.

Q5. The Rio Open is played primarily on which type of court surface?
(a) Grass
(b) Hard court
(c) Clay court
(d) Carpet court
Answer: Clay court
Explanation: The Rio Open is part of the South American clay swing on the ATP Tour and is played on outdoor clay courts.

Madhya Pradesh to Extend Bhavantar Yojana to Mustard Farmers

Q1. Which state government has proposed extending the Bhavantar Yojana to mustard farmers?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Haryana
Answer: Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: The Government of Madhya Pradesh has proposed extending the Bhavantar Yojana to mustard farmers to protect them from price fluctuations.

Q2. The Bhavantar Yojana primarily compensates farmers for which of the following?
(a) Crop insurance losses
(b) Natural disaster damage
(c) Difference between market price and MSP
(d) Fertiliser subsidy
Answer: Difference between market price and MSP
Explanation: The Bhavantar Yojana provides compensation to farmers when the market price of a crop falls below the government-declared Minimum Support Price (MSP).

Q3. Mustard is mainly grown as which type of crop in Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Kharif crop
(b) Rabi crop
(c) Zaid crop
(d) Plantation crop
Answer: Rabi crop
Explanation: Mustard is a major rabi oilseed crop in Madhya Pradesh and plays an important role in edible oil production.

Q4. The Ladli Behna scheme was initially launched in March 2023 with what monthly assistance amount?
(a) ₹500
(b) ₹1,000
(c) ₹1,250
(d) ₹1,500
Answer: ₹1,000
Explanation: The Ladli Behna scheme was launched in March 2023 with an initial monthly assistance of ₹1,000, which was later increased in phases.

Q5. Minimum Support Price (MSP) for agricultural crops is announced by which authority?
(a) State Governments
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Government of India
(d) Food Corporation of India
Answer: Government of India
Explanation: MSP is announced by the Government of India for key agricultural crops to ensure price support and income stability for farmers.

SUJVIKA Portal Launched on 40th Foundation Day of DBT

Q1. “SUJVIKA” portal was launched on the 40th Foundation Day of which department?
(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Department of Biotechnology
(c) Department of Pharmaceuticals
(d) Department of Health Research
Answer: Department of Biotechnology
Explanation: Department of Biotechnology (DBT), established in 1986 under the Ministry of Science & Technology, completed 40 years and marked the occasion with the launch of SUJVIKA.

Q2. SUJVIKA is primarily designed to provide intelligence related to which of the following?
(a) Agricultural export data
(b) Vaccine distribution data
(c) Biotechnology import trade statistics
(d) Space research funding data
Answer: Biotechnology import trade statistics
Explanation: SUJVIKA is an AI-driven Trade Statistics Digital Intelligence Platform that presents authenticated data on biotech imports to assess import dependency and promote indigenisation.

Q3. SUJVIKA was developed in collaboration with which industry body?
(a) FICCI
(b) CII
(c) NASSCOM
(d) ABLE
Answer: ABLE
Explanation: The portal was developed in collaboration with ABLE (Association of Biotechnology Led Enterprises), an industry body representing biotech companies.

Q4. Approximately what was the size of India’s bioeconomy in 2024?
(a) USD 50 billion
(b) USD 100 billion
(c) USD 165.7 billion
(d) USD 250 billion
Answer: USD 165.7 billion
Explanation: India’s bioeconomy expanded significantly to about USD 165.7 billion in 2024, reflecting rapid growth in biotechnology and related sectors.

Q5. The BioE3 Policy focuses on biotechnology for which three areas?
(a) Energy, Education and Export
(b) Economy, Environment and Employment
(c) Ecology, Equity and Expansion
(d) Engineering, Ethics and Entrepreneurship
Answer: Economy, Environment and Employment
Explanation: BioE3 stands for Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment, aiming to promote high-performance biomanufacturing and sustainable development.

7th All India Conference of Government Railway Police (GRP) Chiefs

Q1. The 7th All India Conference of GRP Chiefs was held in which city?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) New Delhi
(d) Lucknow
Answer: New Delhi
Explanation: The conference was held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, focusing on strengthening railway security.

Q2. The conference was organised under the convenorship of which force?
(a) Central Reserve Police Force
(b) Government Railway Police
(c) Railway Protection Force
(d) Border Security Force
Answer: Railway Protection Force
Explanation: The event was convened by the Railway Protection Force (RPF), which functions under the Ministry of Railways.

Q3. The Government Railway Police (GRP) functions under which authority?
(a) Ministry of Railways
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) State Police Departments
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: State Police Departments
Explanation: GRP operates under respective State Police forces, whereas RPF functions under the Ministry of Railways.

Q4. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) functions under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Railways
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: The Narcotics Control Bureau works under the Ministry of Home Affairs and plays a key role in combating drug trafficking.

Q5. Facial Recognition System (FRS) technology used in railway security is primarily applied through which system?
(a) Satellite tracking devices
(b) Biometric attendance machines
(c) CCTV camera networks
(d) Radio frequency scanners
Answer: CCTV camera networks
Explanation: FRS-enabled CCTV cameras help in real-time identification of suspects and enhance surveillance across railway stations.

Him-CONNECT Initiative at World Sustainable Development Summit 2026

Q1. Him-CONNECT is being organised by which Union Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(d) Ministry of Earth Sciences
Answer: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Explanation: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is organising Him-CONNECT under the National Mission on Himalayan Studies (NMHS).

Q2. Him-CONNECT is part of which major summit organised by TERI?
(a) India Climate Summit
(b) Green Energy Forum
(c) World Sustainable Development Summit
(d) Global Biodiversity Congress
Answer: World Sustainable Development Summit
Explanation: Him-CONNECT is being held as part of the World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS), organised by TERI in New Delhi.

Q3. The National Mission on Himalayan Studies (NMHS) mainly focuses on which region?
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Thar Desert
(c) Indian Himalayan Region
(d) Indo-Gangetic Plain
Answer: Indian Himalayan Region
Explanation: NMHS supports research and sustainable development initiatives in the Indian Himalayan Region, which is ecologically sensitive and climate significant.

Q4. Him-CONNECT aims to primarily bridge the gap between which two sectors?
(a) Agriculture and Defence
(b) Research and Enterprise
(c) Tourism and Transport
(d) Education and Healthcare
Answer: Research and Enterprise
Explanation: The platform connects researchers with start-ups, investors and policymakers to promote commercialisation and large-scale implementation of research innovations.

Q5. The Indian Himalayan Region is strategically important mainly because it acts as a major what for Asia?
(a) Mineral reserve
(b) Trade corridor
(c) Climate regulator
(d) Defence buffer zone
Answer: Climate regulator
Explanation: The Indian Himalayan Region plays a crucial role as a climate regulator for Asia and supports biodiversity, water security and livelihoods.

Japan to Deploy Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missiles on Yonaguni Island by 2031

Q1. Japan has announced plans to deploy medium-range surface-to-air missiles on which island?
(a) Hokkaido
(b) Okinawa
(c) Yonaguni
(d) Kyushu
Answer: Yonaguni
Explanation: Japan will deploy the missile system on Yonaguni Island, its westernmost inhabited island, to strengthen its southwestern defence posture.

Q2. Yonaguni Island is located approximately how far from Taiwan?
(a) 50 km
(b) 110 km
(c) 250 km
(d) 500 km
Answer: 110 km
Explanation: Yonaguni Island lies about 110 kilometres from Taiwan, making it strategically important amid regional tensions.

Q3. Yonaguni Island is part of which prefecture of Japan?
(a) Hiroshima Prefecture
(b) Nagasaki Prefecture
(c) Okinawa Prefecture
(d) Kyoto Prefecture
Answer: Okinawa Prefecture
Explanation: Yonaguni Island belongs to Okinawa Prefecture and is strategically located near Taiwan and the East China Sea.

Q4. Under which Article of the Japanese Constitution do Japan’s Self-Defense Forces operate?
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 5
(c) Article 7
(d) Article 9
Answer: Article 9
Explanation: Article 9 of Japan’s Constitution renounces war and allows the operation of Self-Defense Forces strictly for defensive purposes.

Q5. The US-Japan defence cooperation is based on which treaty?
(a) Treaty of San Francisco
(b) US-Japan Security Treaty
(c) Quad Security Pact
(d) ASEAN Defence Agreement
Answer: US-Japan Security Treaty
Explanation: The US-Japan Security Treaty forms the foundation of defence cooperation between Japan and the United States, especially in regional security matters.

Veteran CPI Leader R. Nallakannu Passes Away at 101

Q1. R. Nallakannu was a senior leader of which political party?
(a) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
(b) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(c) Communist Party of India
(d) Indian National Congress
Answer: Communist Party of India
Explanation: R. Nallakannu was a veteran leader of the Communist Party of India (CPI) and played a key role in strengthening the party’s base in Tamil Nadu.

Q2. At what age did R. Nallakannu pass away?
(a) 95 years
(b) 98 years
(c) 100 years
(d) 101 years
Answer: 101 years
Explanation: He passed away at the age of 101, marking the end of a century-long life dedicated to public service and Left ideology.

Q3. In which city did R. Nallakannu breathe his last?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Madurai
Answer: Chennai
Explanation: He passed away at Rajiv Gandhi Government General Hospital in Chennai, where he was undergoing treatment.

Q4. The Communist Party of India (CPI) was founded in which year?
(a) 1919
(b) 1925
(c) 1934
(d) 1947
Answer: 1925
Explanation: The Communist Party of India (CPI) was established in 1925 and has been one of the oldest political parties in India.

Q5. Communist movements in India have historically focused mainly on which issues?
(a) Industrial privatization
(b) Corporate taxation reforms
(c) Agrarian reforms and labour rights
(d) Foreign policy expansion
Answer: Agrarian reforms and labour rights
Explanation: Communist movements in India traditionally emphasized farmers’ rights, land reforms, and protection of labourers’ interests.

PM Narendra Modi Awarded Speaker of the Knesset Medal in Israel

Q1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded which parliamentary honour during his visit to Israel?
(a) Israel Presidential Medal
(b) Grand Collar of Israel
(c) Speaker of the Knesset Medal
(d) Order of Jerusalem
Answer: Speaker of the Knesset Medal
Explanation: PM Narendra Modi received the Speaker of the Knesset Medal, Israel’s highest parliamentary honour, during his visit to Jerusalem.

Q2. The Knesset is the Parliament of which country?
(a) Palestine
(b) Jordan
(c) Israel
(d) Lebanon
Answer: Israel
Explanation: The Knesset is the unicameral Parliament of Israel and is responsible for making national laws.

Q3. India and Israel established full diplomatic relations in which year?
(a) 1948
(b) 1967
(c) 1992
(d) 2000
Answer: 1992
Explanation: India and Israel formally established full diplomatic relations in 1992, leading to expanded cooperation in defence, agriculture and technology.

Q4. India-Israel relations were elevated to a strategic partnership during PM Modi’s visit in which year?
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2017
(d) 2019
Answer: 2017
Explanation: During his landmark visit to Israel in July 2017, PM Modi elevated bilateral relations to a strategic partnership, marking a new phase in cooperation.

Q5. Which Palestinian honour was conferred upon Narendra Modi in 2018?
(a) Order of Bethlehem
(b) Star of Palestine
(c) Grand Collar of the State of Palestine
(d) Jerusalem Peace Medal
Answer: Grand Collar of the State of Palestine
Explanation: In 2018, PM Modi received the Grand Collar of the State of Palestine, the highest civilian award given to foreign dignitaries by Palestine.

Delhi to Implement Rah-Veer Scheme to Assist Road Accident Victims

Q1. The Rah-Veer scheme encourages citizens to assist road accident victims during which critical period?
(a) First 24 hours
(b) First 6 hours
(c) Golden Hour
(d) First 48 hours
Answer: Golden Hour
Explanation: The “golden hour” refers to the first hour after a traumatic injury, when timely medical treatment is crucial for saving lives.

Q2. What is the cash reward provided under the Rah-Veer scheme for helping a road accident victim?
(a) ₹10,000
(b) ₹15,000
(c) ₹25,000
(d) ₹50,000
Answer: ₹25,000
Explanation: Under the Rah-Veer scheme, an individual who ensures that a seriously injured accident victim receives treatment within the golden hour is eligible for ₹25,000 per verified case.

Q3. The Good Samaritan protections related to road accident assistance are provided under which Act?
(a) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(b) Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019
(c) Disaster Management Act, 2005
(d) National Health Act, 2017
Answer: Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019
Explanation: The Good Samaritan provisions under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 protect individuals who voluntarily help accident victims from legal harassment.

Q4. Who announced the implementation of the Rah-Veer scheme in Delhi?
(a) Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
(b) Union Transport Minister
(c) Delhi Chief Minister
(d) Delhi Police Commissioner
Answer: Delhi Chief Minister
Explanation: Delhi Chief Minister Rekha Gupta announced that the Capital will implement the Centre’s Rah-Veer scheme to promote timely assistance to accident victims.

Q5. Which committee is responsible for verifying cases and approving reward disbursal under the Rah-Veer scheme?
(a) State Disaster Response Committee
(b) District Level Evaluation Committee
(c) Road Safety Authority of India
(d) Central Vigilance Committee
Answer: District Level Evaluation Committee
Explanation: Each case is examined by a District Level Evaluation Committee comprising the District Magistrate, police officials, the Chief Medical Officer and the Regional Transport Officer to ensure transparency.

Upgraded RAJMARG PRAVESH Portal Launched for NOC Approvals on National Highways

Q1. The upgraded RAJMARG PRAVESH portal was launched by which Union Minister?
(a) Piyush Goyal
(b) Nitin Gadkari
(c) Hardeep Singh Puri
(d) Ashwini Vaishnaw
Answer: Nitin Gadkari
Explanation: Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari launched the upgraded RAJMARG PRAVESH portal to streamline NOC approvals on National Highways.

Q2. The RAJMARG PRAVESH portal is mainly related to which type of approvals?
(a) Environmental clearances for forests
(b) NOCs for access and utility works along National Highways
(c) Railway land permissions
(d) Airport construction licences
Answer: NOCs for access and utility works along National Highways
Explanation: The portal simplifies the process of obtaining No Objection Certificates (NOCs) for access points and utility works along National Highways.

Q3. Which organisation is primarily responsible for the development and maintenance of National Highways in India?
(a) BRO
(b) CPWD
(c) NHAI
(d) GAIL
Answer: NHAI
Explanation: The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is responsible for the development, maintenance and management of National Highways.

Q4. The RAJMARG PRAVESH portal also facilitates permissions for laying which of the following utilities?
(a) Metro rail tracks
(b) Water and gas pipelines
(c) Inland waterways
(d) Defence communication systems only
Answer: Water and gas pipelines
Explanation: The portal allows online applications for laying utilities such as water pipelines, gas pipelines, optical fibre cables and electrical transmission lines along or across highways.

Q5. NHIDCL mainly focuses on highway infrastructure development in which areas?
(a) Urban metropolitan cities
(b) Coastal regions only
(c) Difficult and border areas
(d) Industrial corridors only
Answer: Difficult and border areas
Explanation: The National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL) focuses on developing highway infrastructure in difficult terrain and border areas.

NAMASTE Scheme Awareness Programme to be Held in Pilibhit, Uttar Pradesh

Q1. What does NAMASTE stand for?
(a) National Mission for Sanitation Technology
(b) National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem
(c) National Alliance for Modern Sanitation and Training Empowerment
(d) New Action Model for Sanitation and Technology Enhancement
Answer: National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem
Explanation: NAMASTE stands for National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem, aimed at promoting mechanised sanitation and ensuring safety and dignity for sanitation workers.

Q2. The NAMASTE scheme primarily targets which group?
(a) Construction workers
(b) Factory labourers
(c) Sewer and Septic Tank Workers and waste pickers
(d) Anganwadi workers
Answer: Sewer and Septic Tank Workers and waste pickers
Explanation: The scheme focuses on Sewer and Septic Tank Workers (SSWs) and waste pickers to improve their safety, social security and livelihood opportunities.

Q3. PPE kits distributed under the programme are mainly intended to achieve what objective?
(a) Increase productivity
(b) Reduce occupational health risks
(c) Promote digital literacy
(d) Provide financial assistance
Answer: Reduce occupational health risks
Explanation: Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) kits help sanitation workers reduce exposure to hazardous conditions and improve workplace safety.

Q4. Ayushman Cards provided during the event are related to which benefit?
(a) Pension scheme
(b) Housing subsidy
(c) Health insurance coverage
(d) Education scholarship
Answer: Health insurance coverage
Explanation: Ayushman Cards provide access to government health insurance schemes, ensuring medical coverage for eligible beneficiaries.

Q5. One of the key objectives of the NAMASTE scheme is to eliminate which practice?
(a) Open defecation
(b) Plastic waste dumping
(c) Manual scavenging
(d) Urban migration
Answer: Manual scavenging
Explanation: The NAMASTE scheme promotes mechanised sanitation and aims to eliminate manual scavenging while improving the socio-economic condition of sanitation workers.

NBEMS Recognised by Guinness World Records for AI in Healthcare Lesson

Q1. Which organisation was recognised by Guinness World Records for the highest number of viewers for an AI in Healthcare lesson on YouTube?
(a) AIIMS
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) NBEMS
(d) ICMR
Answer: NBEMS
Explanation: The National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) achieved a Guinness World Record for the highest number of viewers for a live-streamed AI in Healthcare lesson.

Q2. NBEMS functions under which Union Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Education
(b) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Answer: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Explanation: NBEMS is an autonomous body functioning under the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Q3. The record-setting session focused on Artificial Intelligence applications in which sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Healthcare
(c) Defence
(d) Space research
Answer: Healthcare
Explanation: The training programme was designed to familiarise medical practitioners with AI applications in diagnostics, clinical decision-making and patient care.

Q4. Guinness World Records is primarily known for what purpose?
(a) Publishing academic journals
(b) Conducting civil service exams
(c) Documenting globally verified record achievements
(d) Funding scientific research
Answer: Documenting globally verified record achievements
Explanation: Guinness World Records is an international authority that verifies and documents record-breaking achievements worldwide.

Q5. Competency-based medical education mainly emphasises which approach?
(a) Theoretical memorisation
(b) Examination-oriented learning
(c) Skill-oriented learning outcomes
(d) Distance-only education
Answer: Skill-oriented learning outcomes
Explanation: Competency-based medical education focuses on practical skills, continuous upskilling and measurable learning outcomes for healthcare professionals.

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