24 February 2026 Current Affairs - Daily GK and Mock Test

24 February– Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

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24 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Jessie Buckley Wins Best Actress at 2026 BAFTA Awards

Q1. Jessie Buckley won the Best Actress award at which major film ceremony in 2026?
(a) Academy Awards (Oscars)
(b) Golden Globe Awards
(c) BAFTA Awards
(d) Cannes Film Festival
Answer: BAFTA Awards
Explanation: Jessie Buckley secured the Best Actress honour at the 2026 BAFTA Awards, presented by the British Academy of Film and Television Arts.

Q2. Where was the 2026 BAFTA Awards ceremony held?
(a) Wembley Stadium
(b) Royal Opera House
(c) Royal Festival Hall
(d) Buckingham Palace
Answer: Royal Festival Hall
Explanation: The ceremony took place at the Royal Festival Hall, located on the South Bank of London.

Q3. Jessie Buckley received the Best Actress award for her role in which film?
(a) One Battle After Another
(b) Hamnet
(c) The Banshees of Inisherin
(d) Little Women
Answer: Hamnet
Explanation: She was honoured for portraying Agnes Shakespeare in the historical drama Hamnet, which is based on Maggie O’Farrell’s 2020 novel.

Q4. With this win, Jessie Buckley achieved which historic milestone?
(a) Youngest BAFTA Best Actress winner
(b) First Irish performer to win BAFTA Best Actress
(c) First actress to win BAFTA and Oscar in same year
(d) First woman to host BAFTA Awards
Answer: First Irish performer to win BAFTA Best Actress
Explanation: Buckley became the first Irish performer to receive the Best Actress award at the BAFTAs, marking a historic achievement.

Q5. Who presented the Best Actress award to Jessie Buckley at the 2026 BAFTAs?
(a) Colin Farrell
(b) Cillian Murphy
(c) Paul Thomas Anderson
(d) Benedict Cumberbatch
Answer: Cillian Murphy
Explanation: The award was presented by Irish actor Cillian Murphy, adding to the strong Irish presence at the event.

Netherlands to Swear in Youngest Prime Minister Rob Jetten

Q1. Who is set to become the youngest-ever Prime Minister of the Netherlands in 2026?
(a) Geert Wilders
(b) Mark Rutte
(c) Rob Jetten
(d) Lidewij de Vos
Answer: Rob Jetten
Explanation: Rob Jetten, aged 38, is set to become the youngest Prime Minister in Dutch history, marking a generational shift in the country’s leadership.

Q2. The Netherlands follows which form of government?
(a) Federal Presidential Republic
(b) Absolute Monarchy
(c) Parliamentary Constitutional Monarchy
(d) One-party Socialist State
Answer: Parliamentary Constitutional Monarchy
Explanation: The Netherlands operates under a parliamentary constitutional monarchy, where the monarch is the head of state and the Prime Minister leads the government.

Q3. Who is the current monarch of the Netherlands who will formally install the new government?
(a) King Philippe
(b) King Charles III
(c) King Harald V
(d) King Willem-Alexander
Answer: King Willem-Alexander
Explanation: King Willem-Alexander is the reigning monarch of the Netherlands and will formally install the new government at Huis Ten Bosch Palace.

Q4. Rob Jetten is the leader of which political party in the Netherlands?
(a) Freedom Party (PVV)
(b) Democrats 66 (D66)
(c) Forum for Democracy
(d) Labour Party (PvdA)
Answer: Democrats 66 (D66)
Explanation: Rob Jetten leads the centrist Democrats 66 (D66) party, which secured a narrow victory in the snap election.

Q5. The lower house of the Dutch Parliament (States General) consists of how many seats?
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 150
(d) 200
Answer: 150
Explanation: The Dutch Parliament’s lower house, known as the States General, has 150 seats. The new coalition controls 66 seats, making it a minority government.

India Unveils “Prahaar” – First Comprehensive Counter-Terrorism Policy

Q1. What is the name of India’s first comprehensive counter-terrorism policy unveiled in 2026?
(a) Suraksha
(b) Prahaar
(c) Rakshak
(d) Sankalp
Answer: Prahaar
Explanation: India introduced its first comprehensive counter-terrorism framework titled “Prahaar” to strengthen national security against evolving threats.

Q2. Which ministry released the “Prahaar” counter-terrorism policy?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Law and Justice
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: The policy was released by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), which is responsible for internal security in India.

Q3. The term CBRN, mentioned in the Prahaar policy, stands for which of the following?
(a) Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
(b) Cyber, Border, Railway and Naval
(c) Civil, Border, Regional and National
(d) Chemical, Border, Radar and Network
Answer: Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
Explanation: CBRN refers to Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear threats, which the policy identifies as potential risks if misused by terror groups.

Q4. According to the policy, drones have increasingly been used along which border for smuggling activities?
(a) India-China border
(b) India-Myanmar border
(c) India-Nepal border
(d) India-Pakistan border
Answer: India-Pakistan border
Explanation: The policy highlights the growing use of drones along the India-Pakistan border, especially in Punjab and Jammu & Kashmir, for arms and narcotics smuggling.

Q5. Prahaar emphasises counter-radicalisation mainly through which approach?
(a) Only military action
(b) Only international sanctions
(c) Community engagement and youth outreach
(d) Complete internet shutdown
Answer: Community engagement and youth outreach
Explanation: The policy focuses on preventing radicalisation through community participation, involvement of religious leaders, NGOs, prison de-radicalisation programmes and youth outreach initiatives.

Goa Hosts 4th World Ocean Science Congress 2026

Q1. Which state is hosting the 4th World Ocean Science Congress 2026?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Goa
Answer: Goa
Explanation: The fourth edition of the World Ocean Science Congress 2026 is being hosted in Goa, highlighting the state’s maritime importance.

Q2. The World Ocean Science Congress 2026 is being held at which institution?
(a) National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research
(b) Goa University
(c) National Institute of Oceanography
(d) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services
Answer: National Institute of Oceanography
Explanation: The event is being organised at the National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) in Panaji, which is headquartered in Goa.

Q3. The term “Blue Economy” refers to which of the following?
(a) Exploitation of marine minerals only
(b) Sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth
(c) Military control of maritime zones
(d) Export of seafood products only
Answer: Sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth
Explanation: Blue Economy means the sustainable use of ocean and marine resources for economic development, improved livelihoods and ecosystem health.

Q4. India’s coastal regulation and management are governed under which framework?
(a) National Green Tribunal Act
(b) Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) framework
(c) Marine Fisheries Act
(d) Environment Protection Policy 1992
Answer: Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) framework
Explanation: Coastal activities in India are regulated under the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) framework to protect fragile marine ecosystems.

Q5. India has a coastline of approximately how many kilometres (including island territories)?
(a) 5,000 km
(b) 6,100 km
(c) 7,500 km
(d) 9,000 km
Answer: 7,500 km
Explanation: India has a coastline of over 7,500 km, including its island territories, which plays a vital role in trade, fisheries and national security.

Operation Demolishment – India’s New Phase in Countering Left-Wing Extremism

Q1. ‘Operation Demolishment’ is related to which internal security issue in India?
(a) Cross-border terrorism
(b) Left-Wing Extremism
(c) Cyber warfare
(d) Coastal piracy
Answer: Left-Wing Extremism
Explanation: Operation Demolishment is part of India’s intensified campaign against Left-Wing Extremism (LWE), commonly linked with Naxalite or Maoist insurgency.

Q2. Under Operation Demolishment, security forces have primarily targeted which of the following?
(a) Arms factories
(b) Foreign embassies
(c) Naxal memorials and monuments
(d) Border fencing infrastructure
Answer: Naxal memorials and monuments
Explanation: The initiative focuses on dismantling memorials and symbolic structures allegedly built by Naxal groups to glorify leaders and mobilise local support.

Q3. Which two states have recorded the demolition of the highest number of such structures under this operation?
(a) Jharkhand and Bihar
(b) Odisha and Telangana
(c) Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra
(d) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
Answer: Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra
Explanation: So far, 203 memorials have been demolished in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra, two states historically affected by Naxal violence.

Q4. The term “Red Corridor” refers to which of the following?
(a) India’s border with China
(b) Coastal trade route in western India
(c) LWE-affected districts across central and eastern India
(d) High-security zone in Delhi
Answer: LWE-affected districts across central and eastern India
Explanation: The Red Corridor describes regions in central and eastern India affected by Left-Wing Extremism activities.

Q5. The strategy behind demolishing Naxal memorials is mainly aimed at weakening which aspect of extremism?
(a) Only financial networks
(b) Only foreign support
(c) Psychological and ideological influence
(d) International trade links
Answer: Psychological and ideological influence
Explanation: Authorities believe these memorials were used for ideological outreach and recruitment. Removing them aims to reduce the psychological grip and narrative-building capacity of extremist groups.

Vaan Island Artificial Reef Restoration Shows High Economic and Ecological Gains

Q1. Vaan Island, recently restored through artificial reefs, is located in which region?
(a) Chilika Lake
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Lakshadweep Sea
(d) Andaman Sea
Answer: Gulf of Mannar
Explanation: Vaan Island is one of the 21 coral islands located in the Gulf of Mannar along the Tamil Nadu coast.

Q2. What was the reported Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR) of the Vaan Island restoration project?
(a) 1.12
(b) 1.75
(c) 2.34
(d) 3.10
Answer: 2.34
Explanation: The project recorded a BCR of 2.34, which indicates strong economic viability as a ratio above 1 means benefits exceed costs.

Q3. Artificial reefs are primarily designed to perform which function?
(a) Increase oil exploration
(b) Promote port construction
(c) Mimic natural reef functions
(d) Support deep-sea mining
Answer: Mimic natural reef functions
Explanation: Artificial reefs are man-made structures that replicate the ecological role of natural coral reefs, helping in biodiversity recovery and coastal protection.

Q4. Between 1969 and 2015, Vaan Island shrank by approximately what percentage before restoration efforts began?
(a) 45%
(b) 60%
(c) 75%
(d) 92%
Answer: 92%
Explanation: Due to coral mining, reef degradation and sea-level rise, Vaan Island lost about 92% of its area before intervention started in 2015.

Q5. Coral reefs are important for coastal regions mainly because they:
(a) Increase urban development
(b) Act as natural barriers against erosion and storm surges
(c) Enhance inland agriculture
(d) Promote mining activities
Answer: Act as natural barriers against erosion and storm surges
Explanation: Coral reefs reduce wave energy and protect shorelines from coastal erosion and storm surges, making them vital for climate-resilient coastal management.

National Arogya Fair 2026 Organised by Ministry of Ayush in Maharashtra

Q1. The National Arogya Fair 2026 is being organised by which ministry of the Government of India?
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) Ministry of Ayush
(d) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Answer: Ministry of Ayush
Explanation: The National Arogya Fair 2026 is organised by the Ministry of Ayush, which oversees traditional systems of medicine in India.

Q2. The National Arogya Fair 2026 is being held at Shegaon in which district of Maharashtra?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Buldhana
(c) Amravati
(d) Wardha
Answer: Buldhana
Explanation: The four-day event is being held in Shegaon, located in Buldhana district of Maharashtra.

Q3. Sowa Rigpa, mentioned in the Ayush systems, is associated with which traditional medical system?
(a) Chinese traditional medicine
(b) Tibetan system of medicine
(c) Greek system of medicine
(d) Persian system of medicine
Answer: Tibetan system of medicine
Explanation: Sowa Rigpa is a traditional Tibetan system of medicine that is officially recognised under the Ministry of Ayush in India.

Q4. The primary objective of the National Arogya Fair 2026 includes which of the following?
(a) Promoting allopathic drug exports
(b) Expanding access to Ayush healthcare and supporting medicinal plant cultivation
(c) Launching new vaccination programmes
(d) Establishing new AIIMS hospitals
Answer: Expanding access to Ayush healthcare and supporting medicinal plant cultivation
Explanation: The fair aims to promote Ayush systems, provide free health services and encourage farmers to adopt medicinal plant cultivation for sustainable income.

Q5. Agroforestry, highlighted during the fair, refers to:
(a) Chemical-intensive farming methods
(b) Cultivation of only food grains
(c) Integration of trees and crops on the same land
(d) Exclusive forest conservation without farming
Answer: Integration of trees and crops on the same land
Explanation: Agroforestry combines trees with crops to improve farm income, ecological balance and long-term sustainability.

PM Modi Inaugurates Complete 82-km Delhi–Meerut Namo Bharat RRTS Corridor

Q1. The Delhi–Meerut Namo Bharat corridor, recently inaugurated, has a total length of:
(a) 65 km
(b) 75 km
(c) 82 km
(d) 100 km
Answer: 82 km
Explanation: The Delhi–Meerut Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) corridor spans 82 km, connecting Delhi with Meerut in Uttar Pradesh.

Q2. The Namo Bharat project is associated with which type of transport system?
(a) Conventional Metro Rail
(b) High-Speed Bullet Train
(c) Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS)
(d) Monorail Network
Answer: Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS)
Explanation: Namo Bharat trains operate under the RRTS framework, which is designed for high-speed regional connectivity between cities.

Q3. Sarai Kale Khan station has emerged as a major multi-modal hub because it connects with:
(a) Only Delhi Metro
(b) Only Indian Railways
(c) Metro, Railways and Bus Terminals
(d) Airport terminals only
Answer: Metro, Railways and Bus Terminals
Explanation: Sarai Kale Khan integrates Hazrat Nizamuddin railway station, Delhi Metro’s Pink Line and ISBT bus services, ensuring seamless multi-modal connectivity.

Q4. The Delhi–Meerut RRTS corridor has been integrated with which city’s metro system?
(a) Ghaziabad Metro
(b) Noida Metro
(c) Faridabad Metro
(d) Meerut Metro
Answer: Meerut Metro
Explanation: The corridor has been integrated with the Meerut Metro, allowing smooth transition between intra-city and inter-city travel.

Q5. The primary objective of Rapid Rail (RRTS) projects is to:
(a) Promote tourism only
(b) Replace all railway services
(c) Reduce congestion and carbon emissions in urban regions
(d) Increase ticket fares for revenue
Answer: Reduce congestion and carbon emissions in urban regions
Explanation: Rapid rail systems aim to improve regional mobility, reduce traffic congestion and lower carbon emissions by decreasing dependence on private vehicles.

Union Cabinet Approves Proposal to Rename Kerala as ‘Keralam’

Q1. The Union Cabinet approved the proposal to rename Kerala as what?
(a) Keral
(b) Keral Pradesh
(c) Keralam
(d) Malayala Nadu
Answer: Keralam
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the proposal to officially rename Kerala as ‘Keralam’, reflecting the Malayalam linguistic identity of the state.

Q2. Under which Article of the Constitution can Parliament alter the name of a state?
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 2
(c) Article 3
(d) Article 4
Answer: Article 3
Explanation: Article 3 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to alter the name, boundaries, or area of any existing state, after consulting the concerned state legislature.

Q3. Before introducing the Kerala (Alteration of Name) Bill in Parliament, whose recommendation is required?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President of India
(d) Governor of Kerala
Answer: President of India
Explanation: The Bill can be introduced in Parliament only after the President refers it to the concerned state legislature for its views and gives recommendation.

Q4. Kerala was formed on November 1, 1956, under which Act?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(c) States Reorganisation Act, 1956
(d) Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act
Answer: States Reorganisation Act, 1956
Explanation: Kerala was formed on November 1, 1956, on linguistic basis under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The day is celebrated as Kerala Piravi Day.

Q5. The names of states and Union Territories are mentioned in which Schedule of the Constitution?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) First Schedule
Answer: First Schedule
Explanation: The First Schedule of the Constitution contains the list of all states and Union Territories of India, including their territorial details.

₹27,500 Crore Monetisation Target for Civil Aviation under NMP 2.0

Q1. What is the monetisation target set for the civil aviation sector under NMP 2.0 (FY26–FY30)?
(a) ₹13,500 crore
(b) ₹20,000 crore
(c) ₹27,500 crore
(d) ₹30,000 crore
Answer: ₹27,500 crore
Explanation: The Centre has set a target of ₹27,500 crore for the civil aviation sector under the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) 2.0 for FY26 to FY30, which is higher than the previous cycle.

Q2. Airport monetisation under NMP 2.0 will be done primarily through which model?
(a) Outright sale of airports
(b) Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT)
(c) Operation, Maintenance and Development Agreement (OMDA)
(d) Management contract without investment
Answer: Operation, Maintenance and Development Agreement (OMDA)
Explanation: Under OMDA, private players operate, maintain and develop airports for a fixed concession period while ownership remains with the government.

Q3. Which committee appraises Public Private Partnership (PPP) projects like airport leasing proposals?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Public Private Partnership Appraisal Committee (PPPAC)
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Answer: Public Private Partnership Appraisal Committee (PPPAC)
Explanation: PPPAC evaluates and appraises PPP projects before they receive final approval from the government.

Q4. Under the National Monetisation Pipeline, assets are monetised mainly to unlock value from which type of assets?
(a) Newly constructed greenfield assets
(b) Brownfield public assets
(c) Private industrial assets
(d) Foreign direct investments
Answer: Brownfield public assets
Explanation: The National Monetisation Pipeline focuses on unlocking value from existing brownfield public assets to support infrastructure development and fiscal consolidation.

Q5. Compared to the earlier NMP cycle (FY22–FY25), how has the civil aviation monetisation target changed in NMP 2.0?
(a) It has decreased
(b) It remains the same
(c) It has doubled significantly
(d) It has been removed
Answer: It has doubled significantly
Explanation: The earlier target for FY22–FY25 was ₹13,500 crore, while the new target under NMP 2.0 is ₹27,500 crore, showing a major increase in aviation sector monetisation efforts.

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