21 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

21 February– Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

• 1952 – The Language Movement martyrs were killed in Dhaka, leading to the recognition of Bengali as a state language of Pakistan.
• 1965 – American civil rights leader Malcolm X was assassinated in New York City.
• 1999 – UNESCO declared 21 February as International Mother Language Day, commemorating the 1952 Language Movement.

Today Latest Post Current Affairs

21 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

World Day of Social Justice 2026 and Preamble Reading Initiative

Q1. World Day of Social Justice is observed every year on which date?
(a) 15 January
(b) 30 January
(c) 20 February
(d) 8 March
Answer: 20 February
Explanation: World Day of Social Justice is observed annually on 20 February to promote social inclusion, equality and elimination of discrimination across the world.

Q2. Which ministry is organising the special programme to mark World Day of Social Justice 2026?
(a) Ministry of Law and Justice
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
(d) Ministry of Education
Answer: Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
Explanation: The programme is being organised by the Department of Social Justice & Empowerment under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment to reaffirm constitutional values.

Q3. The programme is being organised in collaboration with which institution in New Delhi?
(a) National Law University, Dwarka
(b) Delhi University
(c) Jamia Millia Islamia
(d) IIT Delhi
Answer: National Law University, Dwarka
Explanation: The event is being held in collaboration with National Law University (NLU), Dwarka, New Delhi, to promote awareness of constitutional values among students.

Q4. The Preamble of the Constitution of India includes which of the following ideals?
(a) Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
(b) Sovereignty, Monarchy and Democracy
(c) Federalism and Secularism only
(d) Rights and Duties only
Answer: Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
Explanation: The Preamble of the Constitution of India enshrines the ideals of Justice (Social, Economic and Political), Liberty, Equality and Fraternity as core constitutional principles.

Q5. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was constituted under which Act?
(a) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(b) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
(c) Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
(d) Civil Procedure Code, 1908
Answer: Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Explanation: NALSA was established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal services and ensure access to justice for weaker sections of society.

Exercise MILAN-2026 – Multilateral Naval Exercise Hosted by India

Q1. The 13th edition of Exercise MILAN-2026 was inaugurated at which place?
(a) Kochi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Chennai
Answer: Visakhapatnam
Explanation: The 13th edition of Exercise MILAN-2026 was inaugurated at Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh, which is also the headquarters of the Eastern Naval Command.

Q2. Exercise MILAN is hosted by which organisation?
(a) Indian Army
(b) Indian Air Force
(c) Indian Coast Guard
(d) Indian Navy
Answer: Indian Navy
Explanation: Exercise MILAN is a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy to strengthen maritime cooperation with friendly foreign countries.

Q3. How many nations are participating in Exercise MILAN-2026?
(a) 52
(b) 60
(c) 74
(d) 80
Answer: 74
Explanation: The 2026 edition is the largest in the history of MILAN, with participation from 74 nations, showing global confidence in India’s maritime leadership.

Q4. Exercise MILAN-2026 is being conducted under which Naval Command?
(a) Western Naval Command
(b) Southern Naval Command
(c) Central Naval Command
(d) Eastern Naval Command
Answer: Eastern Naval Command
Explanation: The exercise is being conducted under the Eastern Naval Command, which is headquartered at Visakhapatnam.

Q5. The main objective of Exercise MILAN is to enhance which of the following?
(a) Coastal tourism
(b) Interoperability among navies
(c) Shipbuilding capacity
(d) Naval recruitment
Answer: Interoperability among navies
Explanation: The primary aim of MILAN is to improve interoperability, meaning the ability of different naval forces to operate together effectively during joint maritime operations.

Bihar Declared Naxal-Free After Surrender of Last Armed Maoist

Q1. Bihar was declared free of Naxal activities after the surrender of which Maoist leader?
(a) Ganapathy
(b) Suresh Koda
(c) Kishenji
(d) Charu Mazumdar
Answer: Suresh Koda
Explanation: Bihar was officially declared Naxal-free after the surrender of the last armed Maoist, Suresh Koda, in Munger district.

Q2. Naxalism in India originated from which uprising in 1967?
(a) Tebhaga Movement
(b) Telangana Movement
(c) Naxalbari Uprising
(d) Quit India Movement
Answer: Naxalbari Uprising
Explanation: The Naxalite movement began with the Naxalbari uprising in 1967 in West Bengal, inspired by Maoist ideology.

Q3. By 2012, how many districts of Bihar were officially affected by Left Wing Extremism?
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 23
Answer: 23
Explanation: In 2012, a total of 23 districts in Bihar were categorised as affected by Left Wing Extremism before sustained security and development efforts reduced its presence.

Q4. The Central Government’s surrender and rehabilitation policy mainly provides which of the following benefits?
(a) Free land distribution only
(b) Foreign employment opportunities
(c) Financial assistance and vocational training
(d) Political reservation
Answer: Financial assistance and vocational training
Explanation: The surrender and rehabilitation policy offers financial support, skill development and reintegration assistance to help former extremists return to mainstream society.

Q5. Which ministry monitors Left Wing Extremism in India?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Law and Justice
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs monitors and coordinates actions against Left Wing Extremism through a dedicated division at the central level.

Kerala Nativity Card Bill Approved by State Cabinet

Q1. The Kerala Nativity Card Bill aims to issue the Nativity Card for which purpose?
(a) Voting in Parliamentary elections
(b) Availing State government services
(c) Obtaining a passport
(d) Income tax filing
Answer: Availing State government services
Explanation: The Nativity Card is proposed as an official identity document to help individuals access State government services and fulfil social requirements in Kerala.

Q2. Under the Bill, who is defined as a ‘native’ of Kerala?
(a) Any person residing in Kerala for five years
(b) A person born in Kerala who has not accepted foreign citizenship
(c) Any Indian citizen living in South India
(d) Only government employees of Kerala
Answer: A person born in Kerala who has not accepted foreign citizenship
Explanation: The Bill defines a native as a person born in Kerala who has not taken foreign citizenship. It also includes persons with Kerala-born ancestors who have not relinquished Indian citizenship.

Q3. Which authority is designated as the sanctioning authority for issuing the Nativity Card?
(a) District Collector
(b) Village Officer
(c) Tahsildar
(d) Chief Secretary
Answer: Tahsildar
Explanation: Applicants must apply to the concerned Tahsildar, who is the designated authority for sanctioning the Nativity Card.

Q4. Citizenship in India is governed by which Act?
(a) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(b) Citizenship Act, 1955
(c) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(d) Passports Act, 1967
Answer: Citizenship Act, 1955
Explanation: Citizenship matters in India are regulated under the Citizenship Act, 1955, which lays down provisions for acquisition and loss of citizenship.

Q5. What happens if a Nativity Card holder voluntarily relinquishes Indian citizenship?
(a) The card remains valid permanently
(b) The card is transferred to family members
(c) The card becomes null and void
(d) The card is converted into a domicile certificate
Answer: The card becomes null and void
Explanation: As per the Bill, if a cardholder later gives up Indian citizenship, the Nativity Card will automatically become null and void.

United States Wins Gold in Women’s Ice Hockey at Milan Winter Olympics

Q1. Which country won the Olympic gold medal in women’s ice hockey in Milan?
(a) Canada
(b) United States
(c) Sweden
(d) Finland
Answer: United States
Explanation: The United States won the gold medal with a 2–1 overtime victory over Canada, marking its third Olympic title in women’s ice hockey.

Q2. The 2026 Winter Olympics are being held in which country?
(a) France
(b) Switzerland
(c) Italy
(d) Austria
Answer: Italy
Explanation: The 2026 Winter Olympics are being hosted in Milan-Cortina, Italy, where the women’s ice hockey final took place.

Q3. Women’s ice hockey was introduced in the Winter Olympics in which year?
(a) 1992
(b) 1994
(c) 1998
(d) 2002
Answer: 1998
Explanation: Women’s ice hockey was first included in the Winter Olympics in 1998 at Nagano, Japan.

Q4. In Olympic knockout stages, overtime in ice hockey follows which format?
(a) Golden set format
(b) Sudden-death format
(c) Penalty-only format
(d) Time-based aggregate format
Answer: Sudden-death format
Explanation: In Olympic knockout matches, overtime is played under the sudden-death format, where the first team to score wins the game.

Q5. The women’s Olympic ice hockey rivalry since 1998 has mainly been between which two countries?
(a) USA and Sweden
(b) Canada and Finland
(c) USA and Canada
(d) Russia and USA
Answer: USA and Canada
Explanation: Since the introduction of women’s ice hockey in 1998, the United States and Canada have dominated the event and developed one of the fiercest rivalries in international sport.

Eric Dane Passes Away at 53 – Legacy of ‘Grey’s Anatomy’ Star

Q1. Eric Dane was best known for portraying which character in “Grey’s Anatomy”?
(a) Dr Derek Shepherd
(b) Dr Mark Sloan
(c) Dr Miranda Bailey
(d) Dr Richard Webber
Answer: Dr Mark Sloan
Explanation: Eric Dane gained worldwide fame for playing Dr Mark Sloan, popularly known as “McSteamy”, in the medical drama “Grey’s Anatomy”.

Q2. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is primarily a disease affecting which part of the body?
(a) Digestive system
(b) Motor neurons
(c) Respiratory tract
(d) Immune system
Answer: Motor neurons
Explanation: ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness and loss of voluntary movement.

Q3. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is also commonly known by which name?
(a) Parkinson’s disease
(b) Huntington’s disease
(c) Lou Gehrig’s disease
(d) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: Lou Gehrig’s disease
Explanation: ALS is also called Lou Gehrig’s disease, named after the famous American baseball player who was diagnosed with the condition.

Q4. “Grey’s Anatomy” first premiered in which year?
(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
Answer: 2005
Explanation: “Grey’s Anatomy” premiered in 2005 and has become one of the longest-running medical drama series in television history.

Q5. In which television series did Eric Dane portray the character Cal Jacobs?
(a) Charmed
(b) Euphoria
(c) House
(d) The Good Doctor
Answer: Euphoria
Explanation: In 2019, Eric Dane played Cal Jacobs in the series “Euphoria”, showing his versatility beyond medical drama roles.

India Joins US-led Pax Silica Strategic Alliance

Q1. India joined which US-led strategic alliance by signing the Pax Silica Declaration?
(a) Quad Tech Initiative
(b) Indo-Pacific Economic Framework
(c) Pax Silica
(d) AUKUS
Answer: Pax Silica
Explanation: India formally entered the US-led Pax Silica strategic alliance to strengthen cooperation in semiconductors, AI and critical minerals.

Q2. The Pax Silica alliance mainly focuses on cooperation in which sectors?
(a) Agriculture and textiles
(b) Oil and natural gas
(c) Tourism and aviation
(d) Semiconductors and Artificial Intelligence
Answer: Semiconductors and Artificial Intelligence
Explanation: The declaration aims to secure global AI and semiconductor supply chains and build a resilient technology ecosystem.

Q3. Pax Silica was launched in which year?
(a) 2023
(b) 2024
(c) 2025
(d) 2026
Answer: 2025
Explanation: The alliance was launched in December 2025 to promote secure and innovation-driven supply chains in critical technologies.

Q4. Semiconductors are essential components in which of the following areas?
(a) Only household appliances
(b) Electronics, AI systems and defence technologies
(c) Agriculture tools only
(d) Textile manufacturing
Answer: Electronics, AI systems and defence technologies
Explanation: Semiconductors are crucial for electronic devices, artificial intelligence systems and advanced defence technologies, making them strategically important.

Q5. Supply chain resilience is primarily associated with which concept?
(a) Cultural exchange
(b) Economic security
(c) Sports diplomacy
(d) Tourism development
Answer: Economic security
Explanation: Supply chain resilience ensures uninterrupted availability of critical materials and technologies, which is a key element of national and economic security policies.

Ranvir Sachdeva – Youngest Speaker at India AI Impact Summit 2026

Q1. Ranvir Sachdeva became the youngest speaker at which event held in New Delhi?
(a) G20 Summit
(b) India AI Impact Summit 2026
(c) Vibrant Gujarat Summit
(d) Digital India Conclave
Answer: India AI Impact Summit 2026
Explanation: Eight-year-old Ranvir Sachdeva addressed the India AI Impact Summit 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, becoming the youngest speaker at the event.

Q2. The India AI Impact Summit 2026 was held at which venue in New Delhi?
(a) Vigyan Bhawan
(b) Bharat Mandapam
(c) Rashtrapati Bhavan
(d) India Habitat Centre
Answer: Bharat Mandapam
Explanation: The summit took place at Bharat Mandapam, a major international convention and exhibition venue in New Delhi.

Q3. Ranvir Sachdeva previously interacted with which CEO during the opening of Apple’s retail store in New Delhi?
(a) Sundar Pichai
(b) Satya Nadella
(c) Tim Cook
(d) Mark Zuckerberg
Answer: Tim Cook
Explanation: In 2023, Ranvir showcased his coding skills to Apple CEO Tim Cook during the inauguration of Apple’s retail store in New Delhi.

Q4. The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is a specialised agency of which organisation?
(a) World Bank
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) United Nations
(d) International Monetary Fund
Answer: United Nations
Explanation: The ITU is a specialised agency of the United Nations responsible for information and communication technologies.

Q5. NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) mainly focuses on which area?
(a) Human spaceflight missions
(b) Robotic space exploration
(c) Military satellite operations
(d) Climate policy research
Answer: Robotic space exploration
Explanation: NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) primarily conducts robotic space missions, including planetary exploration and deep space research.

Sameer Kanodia Wins CEO of the Year Award 2026

Q1. Sameer Kanodia received the CEO of the Year Award for which consecutive year in 2026?
(a) First consecutive year
(b) Second consecutive year
(c) Third consecutive year
(d) Fourth consecutive year
Answer: Second consecutive year
Explanation: Sameer Kanodia was conferred the CEO of the Year Award for the second consecutive year, reflecting sustained leadership excellence.

Q2. The CEO of the Year Award is part of which leadership recognition programme?
(a) India Leadership Summit
(b) Global CEO Forum
(c) The Business Leader of the Year programme
(d) National Corporate Excellence Mission
Answer: The Business Leader of the Year® programme
Explanation: The award is presented under The Business Leader of the Year® programme, which has over 23 years of legacy in leadership recognition.

Q3. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in India is mandated under which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
(a) Section 44
(b) Section 92
(c) Section 135
(d) Section 149
Answer: Section 135
Explanation: CSR provisions in India are governed under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, making certain companies legally responsible for social spending.

Q4. Lumina Datamatics primarily provides services in which sector?
(a) Automobile manufacturing
(b) Digital content and technology services
(c) Oil and gas exploration
(d) Agriculture and food processing
Answer: Digital content and technology services
Explanation: Lumina Datamatics offers digital content services, retail support services and technology solutions to global publishers and eCommerce retailers.

Q5. India’s services sector plays a major role in which of the following?
(a) Defence equipment production only
(b) Global outsourcing and GDP contribution
(c) Agricultural exports only
(d) Mineral extraction
Answer: Global outsourcing and GDP contribution
Explanation: India’s services sector significantly contributes to GDP and is a major player in global outsourcing markets, especially in IT and digital services.

Launch of Vibrant Village Programme–II in Assam

Q1. Who launched the second phase of the Vibrant Village Programme in Assam?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Rajnath Singh
(c) Amit Shah
(d) Himanta Biswa Sarma
Answer: Amit Shah
Explanation: Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched the second phase of the Vibrant Village Programme in Assam to strengthen infrastructure and livelihoods in border villages.

Q2. Vibrant Village Programme–II aims to cover how many villages across India?
(a) 1,500 villages
(b) 1,954 villages
(c) 2,100 villages
(d) 3,000 villages
Answer: 1,954 villages
Explanation: The second phase of the programme covers 1,954 villages across 17 states, focusing mainly on border areas.

Q3. What is the total financial allocation for Vibrant Village Programme–II?
(a) ₹5,000 crore
(b) ₹6,500 crore
(c) ₹6,900 crore
(d) ₹7,500 crore
Answer: ₹6,900 crore
Explanation: The government has allocated ₹6,900 crore under the second phase to improve infrastructure and socio-economic conditions in border villages.

Q4. In Assam, how many villages along the India-Bangladesh border are included under the scheme?
(a) 100 villages
(b) 120 villages
(c) 140 villages
(d) 160 villages
Answer: 140 villages
Explanation: In Assam, 140 villages located along the India-Bangladesh border have been included under Vibrant Village Programme–II.

Q5. Which of the following is NOT a focus area under Vibrant Village Programme–II?
(a) Road connectivity
(b) Telecommunications
(c) Space research facilities
(d) Education and employment
Answer: Space research facilities
Explanation: The programme focuses on roads, telecom, electricity, sanitation, education and employment generation. It does not include space research facilities.

Passing Away of Eminent Bengali Author Sankar (Mani Shankar Mukherjee)

Q1. What was the real name of the Bengali author known by the pen name “Sankar”?
(a) Sunil Gangopadhyay
(b) Mani Shankar Mukherjee
(c) Samaresh Basu
(d) Shirshendu Mukhopadhyay
Answer: Mani Shankar Mukherjee
Explanation: Sankar was the pen name of Mani Shankar Mukherjee, a renowned Bengali author who shaped modern Bengali fiction for decades.

Q2. In which year was Sankar’s debut novel “Kata Ajanare” published?
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1965
Answer: 1955
Explanation: “Kata Ajanare” was published in 1955 and was based on the life of British barrister Noel Frederick Barwell at the Calcutta High Court.

Q3. Which renowned filmmaker adapted “Seemabaddha” and “Jana Aranya” into films?
(a) Mrinal Sen
(b) Tapan Sinha
(c) Satyajit Ray
(d) Ritwik Ghatak
Answer: Satyajit Ray
Explanation: “Seemabaddha” and “Jana Aranya” were adapted into films by Satyajit Ray as part of his famous city trilogy.

Q4. Sankar received the Sahitya Akademi Award in which year?
(a) 2015
(b) 2018
(c) 2020
(d) 2021
Answer: 2021
Explanation: Sankar was honoured with the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2021 for his outstanding contribution to Indian literature.

Q5. The novel “Chowringhee” was adapted into a popular 1968 film starring which actor?
(a) Soumitra Chatterjee
(b) Uttam Kumar
(c) Prosenjit Chatterjee
(d) Dhritiman Chatterjee
Answer: Uttam Kumar
Explanation: The 1968 film adaptation of “Chowringhee”, starring Uttam Kumar, became a major success and helped popularise Sankar’s literary works.

78th Zomi National Day Celebrated in Manipur

Q1. The 78th Zomi National Day was celebrated in which district of Manipur?
(a) Imphal East
(b) Senapati
(c) Churachandpur
(d) Thoubal
Answer: Churachandpur
Explanation: The 78th Zomi National Day was celebrated in Churachandpur district, which has a significant Zomi population.

Q2. Who attended the Zomi National Day celebration as the chief guest?
(a) N. Biren Singh
(b) Losi Dikho
(c) Dharun Kumar S
(d) K Kumo Sha
Answer: Losi Dikho
Explanation: Manipur Deputy Chief Minister Losi Dikho attended the event as the chief guest and addressed the gathering.

Q3. Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in certain northeastern states function under which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Fifth Schedule
(b) Sixth Schedule
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Eighth Schedule
Answer: Sixth Schedule
Explanation: Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) operate under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which provides special administrative provisions for tribal areas in the Northeast.

Q4. Assam Rifles, whose representatives were present at the event, functions under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: Assam Rifles is a paramilitary force that functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Q5. The state government emphasised rehabilitation of which group as part of the peace process in Manipur?
(a) Migrant workers
(b) Refugees from neighbouring countries
(c) Internally Displaced Persons (IDPs)
(d) Ex-servicemen
Answer: Internally Displaced Persons (IDPs)
Explanation: The Deputy Chief Minister highlighted the urgent need to rehabilitate Internally Displaced Persons (IDPs) to restore peace, stability and trust in conflict-affected districts of Manipur.

Nagaland University Confers Lifetime Achievement Awards at ICCMR–2026

Q1. Nagaland University conferred Lifetime Achievement Awards during which conference?
(a) Indian Science Congress–2026
(b) International Conference on Chemistry in Multidisciplinary Research (ICCMR–2026)
(c) National Conference on Green Energy–2026
(d) Global Summit on Nanotechnology–2026
Answer: International Conference on Chemistry in Multidisciplinary Research (ICCMR–2026)
Explanation: The awards were presented during the inaugural session of ICCMR–2026, a three-day international conference focusing on chemistry in multidisciplinary research.

Q2. ICCMR–2026 was organised by which institution?
(a) IIT Bombay
(b) Jadavpur University
(c) Nagaland University
(d) Punjabi University
Answer: Nagaland University
Explanation: The conference was hosted by Nagaland University at I Ihoshe Kinimi Hall, Lumami, highlighting its role in promoting research excellence in the Northeast.

Q3. Prof M A Quraishi is globally recognised for his contributions in which field?
(a) Astrophysics
(b) Corrosion science and green chemistry
(c) Biotechnology
(d) Nuclear chemistry
Answer: Corrosion science and green chemistry
Explanation: Prof M A Quraishi is known for developing eco-friendly corrosion inhibitors and has made significant contributions to corrosion science and green chemistry.

Q4. Green chemistry primarily promotes which of the following?
(a) Increased use of fossil fuels
(b) High-cost industrial processes
(c) Environmentally sustainable chemical processes
(d) Use of radioactive materials
Answer: Environmentally sustainable chemical processes
Explanation: Green chemistry focuses on designing chemical processes that reduce or eliminate hazardous substances, promoting environmental sustainability.

Q5. Lanthanides, mentioned in the context of research specialisation, are mainly known as:
(a) Noble gases
(b) Radioactive isotopes
(c) Rare earth elements
(d) Synthetic polymers
Answer: Rare earth elements
Explanation: Lanthanides are a group of rare earth elements widely used in advanced materials, electronics and modern technological applications—an important exam fact.

Bihar Cabinet Approves New International Airport at Sonepur

Q1. Where will the new international airport approved by the Bihar cabinet be constructed?
(a) Gaya
(b) Darbhanga
(c) Sonepur in Saran district
(d) Bhagalpur
Answer: Sonepur in Saran district
Explanation: The Bihar state cabinet approved the construction of a new international airport at Sonepur in Saran district to enhance air connectivity in north Bihar.

Q2. What will be the length of the runway at the proposed Sonepur International Airport?
(a) 3,000 metres
(b) 3,500 metres
(c) 4,000 metres
(d) 4,200 metres
Answer: 4,200 metres
Explanation: The proposed airport will have a 4,200-metre runway, enabling it to handle wide-body aircraft efficiently.

Q3. A 4,200-metre runway can handle which of the following aircraft?
(a) Boeing 737
(b) ATR-72
(c) Airbus A380
(d) Dornier 228
Answer: Airbus A380
Explanation: A runway of 4,200 metres is capable of accommodating large wide-body aircraft such as the Airbus A380, which requires longer runways for take-off and landing.

Q4. Which ministry grants site clearance for airport projects in India?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: Ministry of Civil Aviation
Explanation: Site clearance for airport projects is granted by the Ministry of Civil Aviation before further approvals are provided.

Q5. Land acquisition for major infrastructure projects in India is governed by which Act?
(a) Land Ceiling Act, 1976
(b) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(c) Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013
(d) National Highways Act, 1956
Answer: Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013
Explanation: Land acquisition for infrastructure projects such as airports is governed by the 2013 Land Acquisition Act, which ensures fair compensation and rehabilitation.

US Supreme Court Strikes Down Tariff Regime; 10% Global Tariff Announced

Q1. Which country’s President announced a 10% global tariff after a Supreme Court ruling?
(a) China
(b) United Kingdom
(c) United States
(d) Canada
Answer: United States
Explanation: The announcement was made by the US President following a Supreme Court decision that struck down the earlier reciprocal tariff regime.

Q2. The US Supreme Court ruled that the power to levy taxes and tariffs is vested in which authority under the US Constitution?
(a) The President
(b) The Supreme Court
(c) Congress
(d) The Federal Reserve
Answer: Congress
Explanation: The Court held that the US Constitution grants Congress the exclusive power to levy taxes and tariffs, not the President.

Q3. The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) primarily deals with:
(a) Monetary policy regulation
(b) Emergency economic powers of the President
(c) Immigration control
(d) Federal taxation procedures
Answer: Emergency economic powers of the President
Explanation: The IEEPA provides the President certain emergency economic powers, but the Supreme Court ruled that it does not authorise unilateral tariff imposition without congressional approval.

Q4. Section 301 of the US Trade Act is related to:
(a) Agricultural subsidies
(b) Environmental protection
(c) Unfair foreign trade practices
(d) Labour rights enforcement
Answer: Unfair foreign trade practices
Explanation: Section 301 allows the US government to investigate and respond to unfair trade practices by foreign countries.

Q5. Who generally bears the cost of tariffs in practice?
(a) Exporting governments
(b) Foreign manufacturers
(c) Importing companies
(d) International organisations
Answer: Importing companies
Explanation: Tariffs are usually paid by importers in the country imposing them. These costs are often passed on to consumers through higher prices.

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