20 January 2026 Current Affairs - Daily GK and Mock Test

20 January – Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

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20 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Guatemala Declares 30-Day State of Siege After Gang Violence

Q1. Which country declared a 30-day state of siege following deadly gang-linked violence?
(a) Honduras
(b) El Salvador
(c) Guatemala
(d) Nicaragua
Answer: Guatemala
Explanation: Guatemala entered a heightened security phase after declaring a 30-day state of siege to deal with escalating gang violence.

Q2. Who is the President of Guatemala who declared the state of siege?
(a) Alejandro Giammattei
(b) Nayib Bukele
(c) Bernardo Arévalo
(d) Juan Orlando Hernández
Answer: Bernardo Arévalo
Explanation: President Bernardo Arévalo announced the state of siege in response to coordinated attacks on police officers.

Q3. What immediate event triggered the declaration of the state of siege?
(a) Kidnapping of foreign tourists
(b) Killing of seven police officers in gang attacks
(c) A military coup attempt
(d) Collapse of prison buildings
Answer: Killing of seven police officers in gang attacks
Explanation: The decision came after seven national police officers were killed in coordinated retaliatory attacks by gang members.

Q4. At which maximum-security prison did inmates take guards hostage during the unrest?
(a) Pavón Prison
(b) El Boquerón Prison
(c) Renovación Prison
(d) Cantel Prison
Answer: Renovación Prison
Explanation: Inmates took dozens of guards hostage at the Renovación facility in Escuintla to protest the withdrawal of privileges for gang leaders.

Q5. Under Guatemala’s constitution, what power does a state of siege give the government?
(a) Dissolution of Parliament
(b) Permanent military rule
(c) Temporary suspension of certain constitutional rights
(d) Immediate national elections
Answer: Temporary suspension of certain constitutional rights
Explanation: A state of siege allows temporary restrictions on freedoms of movement, assembly, and protest to help security forces restore order.

Vidarbha Wins First Vijay Hazare Trophy Title

Q1. Which team won their first Vijay Hazare Trophy title by defeating Saurashtra?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Vidarbha
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Vidarbha
Explanation: Vidarbha created history by winning their maiden Vijay Hazare Trophy after defeating two-time champions Saurashtra.

Q2. Who was the top scorer for Vidarbha in the final, playing a match-winning knock of 128?
(a) Yash Rathod
(b) Dhruv Shorey
(c) Atharva Taide
(d) Ankur Panwar
Answer: Atharva Taide
Explanation: Opener Atharva Taide scored a brilliant 128, anchoring Vidarbha’s innings and setting up a strong total.

Q3. Where was the Vijay Hazare Trophy final between Vidarbha and Saurashtra played?
(a) Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
(b) M. Chinnaswamy Stadium, Bengaluru
(c) BCCI Centre of Excellence, Bengaluru
(d) Arun Jaitley Stadium, Delhi
Answer: BCCI Centre of Excellence, Bengaluru
Explanation: The final was held at the BCCI Centre of Excellence in Bengaluru, a key venue for domestic cricket.

Q4. Which bowler led Vidarbha’s attack with four wickets in the final?
(a) Nachiket Bhute
(b) Darshan Nalkande
(c) Yash Thakur
(d) Ankur Panwar
Answer: Yash Thakur
Explanation: Yash Thakur took four wickets, playing a crucial role in bowling out Saurashtra and sealing Vidarbha’s victory.

Q5. The Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with which format of cricket?
(a) Test cricket
(b) T20 cricket
(c) 100-ball cricket
(d) List A (One-Day) cricket
Answer: List A (One-Day) cricket
Explanation: The Vijay Hazare Trophy is India’s premier domestic one-day (List A) tournament, played in a 50-over format.

IMF Upgrades India’s 2025 Growth Forecast to 7.3%

Q1. Which international organisation upgraded India’s economic growth forecast for 2025 to 7.3%?
(a) World Bank
(b) Asian Development Bank
(c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(d) World Economic Forum
Answer: International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Explanation: The IMF raised India’s 2025 growth forecast to 7.3% in its latest World Economic Outlook update.

Q2. By how many percentage points did the IMF raise India’s 2025 growth estimate?
(a) 0.3 percentage point
(b) 0.5 percentage point
(c) 0.7 percentage point
(d) 1.0 percentage point
Answer: 0.7 percentage point
Explanation: The IMF upgraded India’s growth estimate by 0.7 percentage point, reflecting stronger-than-expected domestic performance.

Q3. Which factors were cited by the IMF as key drivers behind the upward revision of India’s growth forecast?
(a) Higher agricultural output and export boom
(b) Robust corporate earnings and steady domestic demand
(c) Increased foreign aid and remittances
(d) Large-scale currency devaluation
Answer: Robust corporate earnings and steady domestic demand
Explanation: The IMF attributed the upgrade to strong corporate earnings in the December quarter, solid activity, improved investment sentiment, and steady domestic demand.

Q4. What growth rate has the IMF projected for India in both 2026 and 2027?
(a) 5.8%
(b) 6.0%
(c) 6.4%
(d) 6.9%
Answer: 6.4%
Explanation: The IMF expects India’s growth to moderate to 6.4% in 2026 and 2027 as cyclical and temporary factors fade.

Q5. Which Indian institution recently revised its growth estimate upward, supporting the IMF’s optimistic outlook?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) National Statistics Office (NSO)
Answer: National Statistics Office (NSO)
Explanation: The National Statistics Office (NSO) had earlier upgraded India’s growth estimate, which the IMF cited as reinforcing the positive outlook.

IMF Raises Global Growth Forecast for 2026 to 3.3%

Q1. Which organisation raised its global growth forecast for 2026 to 3.3%?
(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(c) Asian Development Bank
(d) World Trade Organization
Answer: International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Explanation: The IMF upgraded its global growth forecast for 2026 to 3.3% in its latest World Economic Outlook update.

Q2. By how many percentage points did the IMF increase its 2026 global growth estimate compared with its October projection?
(a) 0.1 percentage point
(b) 0.2 percentage point
(c) 0.5 percentage point
(d) 1.0 percentage point
Answer: 0.2 percentage point
Explanation: The IMF raised its 2026 growth estimate by 0.2 percentage points, reflecting stronger-than-expected economic resilience.

Q3. Which major factor did the IMF cite as the main driver behind the upward revision of global growth?
(a) Expansion of global tourism
(b) Rise in crude oil production
(c) Artificial intelligence-led investment
(d) Increase in agricultural output
Answer: Artificial intelligence-led investment
Explanation: The IMF highlighted rapid growth in AI-related spending on data centres, semiconductors, and power infrastructure as the key driver.

Q4. According to the IMF, what effective US tariff rate is now assumed in its updated trade and growth outlook?
(a) 12.5%
(b) 15.0%
(c) 18.5%
(d) 25.0%
Answer: 18.5%
Explanation: The IMF now assumes an effective US tariff rate of 18.5%, lower than earlier estimates of around 25%, indicating easing trade pressures.

Q5. Who is the chief economist of the IMF who commented on the global economy’s adaptation to tariffs and geopolitical shocks?
(a) Kristalina Georgieva
(b) Gita Gopinath
(c) Raghuram Rajan
(d) Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas
Answer: Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas
Explanation: IMF chief economist Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas said the global economy has adapted better than expected to higher tariffs and geopolitical shocks.

World Economic Forum Annual Meeting 2026 Begins in Davos

Q1. Where is the World Economic Forum (WEF) Annual Meeting 2026 being held?
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) Zurich, Switzerland
(c) Davos, Switzerland
(d) Bern, Switzerland
Answer: Davos, Switzerland
Explanation: The WEF Annual Meeting is आयोजित every year in Davos, Switzerland, and the 2026 summit is also being held there.

Q2. What is the theme of the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting 2026?
(a) Global Growth and Stability
(b) Shaping the Future
(c) A Spirit of Dialogue
(d) Inclusive Development
Answer: A Spirit of Dialogue
Explanation: The official theme of WEF 2026 is “A Spirit of Dialogue”, focusing on reviving cooperation amid global uncertainty.

Q3. Which of the following is NOT a key theme on the Davos 2026 agenda?
(a) Artificial intelligence
(b) Energy transition
(c) Space exploration
(d) Economic resilience
Answer: Space exploration
Explanation: The main agenda themes include economic resilience, AI, energy transition, geopolitics, and global risks, not space exploration.

Q4. How many Union ministers are part of India’s delegation at Davos 2026?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer: Four
Explanation: India’s delegation includes four Union ministers: Ashwini Vaishnaw, Shivraj Singh Chouhan, Pralhad Joshi, and K Rammohan Naidu.

Q5. Which of the following Indian business leaders is attending Davos 2026?
(a) Ratan Tata
(b) Mukesh Ambani
(c) Vijay Shekhar Sharma
(d) Byju Raveendran
Answer: Mukesh Ambani
Explanation: Prominent Indian participants at Davos 2026 include Mukesh Ambani, N Chandrasekaran, Sunil Bharti Mittal, and Nandan Nilekani.

China’s Population Declines for Fourth Consecutive Year in 2025

Q1. How many consecutive years has China’s population declined as of 2025?
(a) Two years
(b) Three years
(c) Four years
(d) Five years
Answer: Four years
Explanation: China recorded its fourth straight annual fall in population in 2025, highlighting a deepening demographic decline.

Q2. What was China’s total population in 2025 after the latest decline?
(a) 1.450 billion
(b) 1.420 billion
(c) 1.404 billion
(d) 1.380 billion
Answer: 1.404 billion
Explanation: Official data showed that China’s population fell by 3 million in 2025 to 1.404 billion.

Q3. How many births were recorded in China in 2025?
(a) 9.54 million
(b) 8.40 million
(c) 7.92 million
(d) 6.75 million
Answer: 7.92 million
Explanation: Births dropped sharply to 7.92 million in 2025, marking a record low and a 17% fall from the previous year.

Q4. What is the replacement-level fertility rate required to maintain population size?
(a) 1.5 births per woman
(b) 1.8 births per woman
(c) 2.1 births per woman
(d) 2.5 births per woman
Answer: 2.1 births per woman
Explanation: A fertility rate of about 2.1 births per woman is needed to keep the population size stable without migration.

Q5. In which year did India overtake China as the world’s most populous country?
(a) 2021
(b) 2022
(c) 2023
(d) 2024
Answer: 2023
Explanation: India surpassed China as the world’s most populous nation in 2023, with China now ranking second globally.

India Likely to Become an Upper-Middle-Income Country by 2030

Q1. Which institution estimated that India’s GNI per capita could reach $4,000 by 2030?
(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(c) State Bank of India (SBI)
(d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Answer: State Bank of India (SBI)
Explanation: The analysis projecting India’s GNI per capita at $4,000 by 2030 was released by the State Bank of India (SBI).

Q2. According to the World Bank, countries are classified into income groups based on which indicator?
(a) GDP growth rate
(b) Total GDP
(c) Per capita GNI in US dollars
(d) Per capita consumption
Answer: Per capita GNI in US dollars
Explanation: The World Bank categorises economies into income groups using per capita Gross National Income (GNI) measured in US dollars.

Q3. What is the approximate per capita GNI threshold for an upper-middle-income country?
(a) $2,000–$2,500
(b) $3,000–$3,500
(c) $4,000–$4,500
(d) $5,000–$5,500
Answer: $4,000–$4,500
Explanation: The upper-middle-income threshold under World Bank classification is currently around $4,000–$4,500 per capita.

Q4. In which year did India become a lower-middle-income country?
(a) 1997
(b) 2001
(c) 2007
(d) 2012
Answer: 2007
Explanation: India moved from low-income to lower-middle-income status in 2007 after decades of gradual income growth.

Q5. By which year is India projected to become the world’s third-largest economy?
(a) 2025
(b) 2026
(c) 2028
(d) 2030
Answer: 2028
Explanation: Projections suggest that India could overtake Germany to become the world’s third-largest economy by 2028, behind the US and China.

ECI to Host IICDEM 2026 in New Delhi

Q1. Which institution will host the India International Conference on Democracy and Election Management (IICDEM) 2026?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Supreme Court of India
(c) Election Commission of India (ECI)
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: Election Commission of India (ECI)
Explanation: The IICDEM 2026 will be hosted by the Election Commission of India to showcase India’s electoral practices and promote global dialogue on democracy.

Q2. Where and when will the IICDEM 2026 be आयोजित?
(a) Mumbai, January 10–12, 2026
(b) New Delhi, January 21–23, 2026
(c) Bengaluru, February 5–7, 2026
(d) Hyderabad, March 1–3, 2026
Answer: New Delhi, January 21–23, 2026
Explanation: The three-day international conference will take place in New Delhi from January 21 to 23, 2026.

Q3. What is the full form of SIR, which will be a major highlight of the conference?
(a) Systematic Identity Registration
(b) Special Intensive Revision
(c) Standard Electoral Review
(d) Strategic Inclusion Reform
Answer: Special Intensive Revision
Explanation: SIR stands for Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, aimed at improving accuracy by including eligible voters and removing ineligible entries.

Q4. Approximately how many international delegates are expected to attend IICDEM 2026?
(a) About 50 delegates from 40 countries
(b) About 75 delegates from 60 countries
(c) About 100 delegates from 70 countries
(d) About 150 delegates from 90 countries
Answer: About 100 delegates from 70 countries
Explanation: Nearly 100 delegates from around 70 countries are expected, making it the largest global electoral event hosted by India so far.

Q5. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 312
(c) Article 324
(d) Article 356
Answer: Article 324
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Constitution.

Legendary Fashion Designer Valentino Garavani Passes Away at 93

Q1. Who was the legendary Italian fashion designer who passed away on January 19, 2026?
(a) Giorgio Armani
(b) Valentino Garavani
(c) Donatella Versace
(d) Karl Lagerfeld
Answer: Valentino Garavani
Explanation: Valentino Garavani, the founder of the Valentino fashion house, died on January 19, 2026, at the age of 93.

Q2. Where did Valentino Garavani pass away?
(a) Milan
(b) Florence
(c) Paris
(d) Rome
Answer: Rome
Explanation: Valentino Garavani died peacefully at his residence in Rome, as confirmed by his foundation.

Q3. In which year did Valentino co-found the Valentino fashion house?
(a) 1952
(b) 1960
(c) 1975
(d) 1988
Answer: 1960
Explanation: Valentino co-founded the Valentino fashion house in Rome in 1960, which later became a global luxury brand.

Q4. What is the name of Valentino’s iconic signature colour in global fashion?
(a) Royal Blue
(b) Crimson Gold
(c) Valentino Red
(d) Italian Scarlet
Answer: Valentino Red
Explanation: “Valentino Red” is globally recognised as the designer’s signature colour and a hallmark of his fashion legacy.

Q5. At which prestigious institution did Valentino Garavani study fashion in Paris?
(a) École de la Chambre Syndicale de la Couture Parisienne
(b) Central Saint Martins
(c) Parsons School of Design
(d) London College of Fashion
Answer: École de la Chambre Syndicale de la Couture Parisienne
Explanation: Valentino studied fashion at the Chambre Syndicale de la Couture Parisienne in Paris, where he received formal training in haute couture.

Delhi to Launch Unified Emergency Helpline Number 112

Q1. Which unified emergency helpline number is Delhi set to launch?
(a) 100
(b) 101
(c) 108
(d) 112
Answer: 112
Explanation: Delhi will launch 112 as a single unified emergency helpline number, in line with the national emergency framework.

Q2. Which ministry has declared 112 as India’s national emergency number?
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) Ministry of Communications
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Electronics and IT
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs has designated 112 as India’s single national emergency number.

Q3. Under the new system, citizens can access emergency services through which of the following modes?
(a) Only voice calls
(b) Voice calls and emails only
(c) Voice calls, mobile app, SMS, panic buttons, and online platforms
(d) Only mobile app
Answer: Voice calls, mobile app, SMS, panic buttons, and online platforms
Explanation: The 112 system allows citizens to seek help through multiple access modes to ensure wider accessibility during emergencies.

Q4. What is the name of the upgraded Emergency Response Support System being implemented in Delhi?
(a) ERSS 1.0
(b) ERSS 2.0
(c) NERS 2.0
(d) Smart Response System
Answer: ERSS 2.0
Explanation: The upgraded system is called ERSS 2.0, featuring real-time monitoring and automatic caller location detection.

Q5. What does the term “golden hour” refer to in emergency response?
(a) First 30 minutes after an incident
(b) First 45 minutes after an incident
(c) First 60 minutes after an incident
(d) First 90 minutes after an incident
Answer: First 60 minutes after an incident
Explanation: The golden hour refers to the first 60 minutes after an emergency, when timely response is most critical for saving lives.

Indo-China Team Develops Eco-Friendly Corrosion Inhibitor from Apple Leaves

Q1. Which two universities collaborated on the research to develop a corrosion inhibitor from waste apple leaves?
(a) Delhi University and Peking University
(b) IIT Delhi and Tsinghua University
(c) Nagaland University and University of Science and Technology Beijing
(d) JNU and Fudan University
Answer: Nagaland University and University of Science and Technology Beijing
Explanation: The study was jointly conducted by researchers from Nagaland University (India) and the University of Science and Technology Beijing (China).

Q2. What eco-friendly material did researchers use to create the corrosion inhibitor?
(a) Banana peels
(b) Rice husk
(c) Waste apple leaves
(d) Sugarcane bagasse
Answer: Waste apple leaves
Explanation: The researchers converted discarded apple leaves into high-performance corrosion inhibitors using a green chemistry approach.

Q3. What nanomaterial was developed from apple leaves to protect metals from corrosion?
(a) Graphene oxide
(b) Carbon nanotubes
(c) Carbon quantum dots
(d) Silicon nanoparticles
Answer: Carbon quantum dots
Explanation: The team developed carbon quantum dots derived from apple leaves, which bind strongly to metal surfaces and prevent corrosion.

Q4. Which metal’s corrosion was successfully suppressed using the apple-leaf carbon quantum dots?
(a) Iron
(b) Aluminium
(c) Zinc
(d) Copper
Answer: Copper
Explanation: Laboratory tests showed that the bio-derived inhibitors effectively suppressed copper corrosion in acidic environments.

Q5. What was the corrosion inhibition efficiency achieved by the apple-leaf carbon quantum dots?
(a) 75%–80%
(b) 85%–90%
(c) 90%–93%
(d) 94%–96.2%
Answer: 94%–96.2%
Explanation: The apple-leaf carbon quantum dots achieved a high inhibition efficiency ranging from 94% to 96.2%, even at low concentrations.

Mumbai Climate Week 2026 – City-Led Climate Action with a Child Rights Focus

Q1. What is the name of the landmark urban climate event to be hosted by Mumbai in 2026?
(a) India Climate Summit
(b) Mumbai Green Forum
(c) Mumbai Climate Week 2026
(d) National Youth Climate Meet
Answer: Mumbai Climate Week 2026
Explanation: The three-day urban climate event is titled Mumbai Climate Week 2026, marking India’s first city-led climate initiative with a strong child rights focus.

Q2. When will Mumbai Climate Week 2026 be held?
(a) January 10–12, 2026
(b) February 9–11, 2026
(c) February 17–19, 2026
(d) March 1–3, 2026
Answer: February 17–19, 2026
Explanation: Mumbai Climate Week 2026 will take place from February 17 to 19, bringing together citizens, youth and policymakers.

Q3. Which organisations are the official youth engagement partners for the event?
(a) UNESCO and WHO
(b) UNICEF India and YuWaah
(c) NITI Aayog and NSS
(d) UNEP and WWF India
Answer: UNICEF India and YuWaah
Explanation: UNICEF India and YuWaah have been named official youth engagement partners, working alongside Project Mumbai.

Q4. Under which national mission will the electronic waste installation be organised?
(a) Swachh Bharat Mission
(b) Digital India Mission
(c) Mission LiFE
(d) Smart Cities Mission
Answer: Mission LiFE
Explanation: The e-waste installation will be organised under the Ministry of Education’s Mission LiFE, which promotes sustainable lifestyles.

Q5. The Youth Green Innovation Challenge is open to innovators from which age group?
(a) 12 to 18 years
(b) 14 to 21 years
(c) 16 to 24 years
(d) 18 to 30 years
Answer: 16 to 24 years
Explanation: The Youth Green Innovation Challenge is a national platform for young innovators aged 16 to 24, focusing on food systems, urban resilience and energy transition.

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