19 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

19 February– Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

• 1630 – Birth of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, founder of the Maratha Empire and key figure in Indian history; his birth anniversary is celebrated as Shiv Jayanti in Maharashtra.
• 1878 – Inventor Thomas Edison received a patent for the phonograph, the first device to record and reproduce sound.
• 1942 – U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed Executive Order 9066 during World War II, authorizing the internment of people of Japanese ancestry, a major civil liberties event.
• 1945 – Battle of Iwo Jima began as U.S. Marines landed on the Japanese island in World War II, one of the war’s iconic campaigns.

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19 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

India’s Cheetah Reintroduction Programme Achieves Milestone at Kuno National Park

Q1. How many cheetah cubs were recently born at Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer: Three
Explanation: Three new cheetah cubs were born, taking India’s total cheetah population to 38 and marking the ninth successful litter under Project Cheetah.

Q2. Who announced the birth of the new cheetah cubs in India?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Bhupender Yadav
(c) Prakash Javadekar
(d) Ramesh Pokhriyal
Answer: Bhupender Yadav
Explanation: Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav confirmed the successful birth of the cubs at Kuno National Park.

Q3. From which countries were cheetahs translocated to India under Project Cheetah?
(a) Kenya and Botswana
(b) Namibia and South Africa
(c) Tanzania and Zimbabwe
(d) Botswana and Namibia
Answer: Namibia and South Africa
Explanation: In 2022–23, 20 cheetahs were relocated from Namibia and South Africa, marking the world’s first inter-continental relocation of a large carnivore.

Q4. In which year did cheetahs become extinct in India?
(a) 1947
(b) 1952
(c) 1965
(d) 1970
Answer: 1952
Explanation: The cheetah became extinct in India in 1952 due to hunting and habitat loss. Project Cheetah aims to restore the species in its native grasslands.

Q5. What is the significance of repeated successful breeding of cheetahs in India?
(a) Indicates increase in tourism
(b) Shows adaptability and habitat suitability
(c) Reduces prey population
(d) Improves forest cover
Answer: Shows adaptability and habitat suitability
Explanation: Repeated successful litters indicate that cheetahs are adapting well to Indian conditions and the habitat at Kuno National Park supports their growth and survival.

Poland Bars Chinese-Made Vehicles from Military Installations Over Security Concerns

Q1. Why has Poland barred Chinese-made vehicles from entering its military installations?
(a) Trade disputes
(b) Environmental concerns
(c) National security risks linked to digital systems
(d) Vehicle emissions regulations
Answer: National security risks linked to digital systems
Explanation: Poland restricted Chinese-made vehicles due to concerns that modern vehicles’ sensors, cameras, and communication systems could be exploited, threatening sensitive defence infrastructure.

Q2. Which vehicles are exempted from Poland’s military entry restrictions?
(a) All foreign vehicles
(b) Military vehicles, rescue operations, and statutory duties
(c) Only electric vehicles
(d) Vehicles older than 10 years
Answer: Military vehicles, rescue operations, and statutory duties
Explanation: Official military vehicles and vehicles performing statutory duties are exempted, ensuring operational continuity while safeguarding sensitive areas.

Q3. What functions in vehicles make them a potential security risk according to Polish military officials?
(a) Manual gear and fuel efficiency
(b) Cameras, GPS, sensors, and data communication modules
(c) Engine size and speed capacity
(d) Air conditioning and infotainment quality
Answer: Cameras, GPS, sensors, and data communication modules
Explanation: Modern vehicles’ telematics systems can collect and transmit data, which could be exploited in critical defence zones, prompting restrictions.

Q4. Which Chinese automotive brands have notable sales in Poland?
(a) Tesla, Nio, BYD
(b) MG, BYD, Chery
(c) SAIC, Geely, FAW
(d) BYD, Tesla, Chery
Answer: MG, BYD, Chery
Explanation: Despite commercial presence of these brands, the Polish military emphasized that restrictions are preventive measures for security, not trade barriers.

Q5. Poland is a member of which international alliance that aligns its security protocols with allies?
(a) ASEAN
(b) NATO
(c) SAARC
(d) BRICS
Answer: NATO
Explanation: Poland, as a NATO member, follows security standards consistent with allied protocols, ensuring preventive steps do not conflict with international commitments.

Sanae Takaichi Reappointed Japan’s Prime Minister After Snap Elections

Q1. Who was reappointed as Japan’s prime minister following the February 8 snap elections?
(a) Fumio Kishida
(b) Shinzo Abe
(c) Sanae Takaichi
(d) Yoshihide Suga
Answer: Sanae Takaichi
Explanation: Sanae Takaichi, Japan’s first female prime minister, was formally reappointed after her Liberal Democratic Party won a two-thirds majority in the lower house elections.

Q2. What advantage does the LDP’s two-thirds majority in the lower house provide?
(a) Control over local governments
(b) Ability to override upper house decisions and dominate key committees
(c) Automatic constitutional amendments
(d) Exemption from elections for five years
Answer: Ability to override upper house decisions and dominate key committees
Explanation: The supermajority gives Takaichi significant legislative leverage, enabling her party to pass bills despite lacking a majority in the upper house.

Q3. Which post-war Japanese constitutional article renounces war as a sovereign right?
(a) Article 7
(b) Article 9
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 12
Answer: Article 9
Explanation: Article 9 of Japan’s Constitution forbids war as a sovereign right, and revising it is part of Takaichi’s long-term ambitions to expand Japan’s defence capabilities.

Q4. What controversial location has Takaichi expressed support for visiting, which often provokes objections from neighbouring countries?
(a) Hiroshima Peace Memorial
(b) Tokyo Tower
(c) Yasukuni Shrine
(d) Mount Fuji
Answer: Yasukuni Shrine
Explanation: Yasukuni Shrine commemorates Japan’s war dead, including convicted wartime leaders, and visits by leaders often trigger regional diplomatic concerns.

Q5. Which country is Japan seeking to strengthen economic security and rare earth cooperation with under Takaichi?
(a) China
(b) South Korea
(c) United States
(d) India
Answer: United States
Explanation: Takaichi plans to deepen US-Japan cooperation in economic security and rare earth development, balancing strategic partnerships with global trade interests.

Uttarakhand Surpasses 1 GW Solar Power Capacity Milestone

Q1. Uttarakhand has recently achieved which milestone in solar power capacity?
(a) 500 MW
(b) 1 GW
(c) 2 GW
(d) 5 GW
Answer: 1 GW
Explanation: Uttarakhand’s total installed solar power capacity has crossed 1 gigawatt (1,027.87 MW), marking a major step in its clean energy transition.

Q2. Which state agency has played a key role in promoting solar adoption in Uttarakhand?
(a) UREDA
(b) SECI
(c) MNRE
(d) NTPC
Answer: UREDA
Explanation: The Uttarakhand Renewable Energy Development Agency (UREDA) provided technical support, awareness campaigns, and project execution assistance to expand solar infrastructure.

Q3. Which of the following is NOT a type of solar installation contributing to Uttarakhand’s total capacity?
(a) Canal-top projects
(b) Rooftop systems
(c) Offshore solar farms
(d) Ground-mounted plants
Answer: Offshore solar farms
Explanation: Uttarakhand’s solar capacity includes rooftop systems, ground-mounted plants, canal-top projects, and solar pumps, but offshore solar farms are not part of the state’s installations.

Q4. Under which scheme have around 241 MW of rooftop solar installations been completed in Uttarakhand?
(a) PM-KUSUM
(b) PM Surya Ghar scheme
(c) Chief Minister Solar Self-Employment Scheme
(d) Net Metering Scheme
Answer: PM Surya Ghar scheme
Explanation: The PM Surya Ghar scheme has facilitated rooftop solar installations totaling about 241 MW across the state.

Q5. How does Uttarakhand’s solar expansion contribute to environmental sustainability?
(a) Increases coal production
(b) Reduces carbon emissions and enhances energy security
(c) Promotes natural gas imports
(d) Encourages forest clearing
Answer: Reduces carbon emissions and enhances energy security
Explanation: Expanding solar infrastructure lowers carbon emissions, provides decentralized power, and strengthens energy security, particularly in remote and mountainous regions.

India AI Impact Summit 2026 – Day 3 Highlights

Q1. What Guinness World Record did India secure during the India AI Impact Summit 2026?
(a) Largest AI conference in Asia
(b) Most AI research papers published in 24 hours
(c) Most pledges received for an AI responsibility campaign in 24 hours
(d) Fastest AI model training on a supercomputer
Answer: Most pledges received for an AI responsibility campaign in 24 hours
Explanation: India recorded 250,946 valid pledges between February 16–17, earning a Guinness World Record for mass participation in an AI responsibility campaign.

Q2. Which initiative did Google announce to strengthen digital connectivity between the US, India, and Southern Hemisphere locations?
(a) Google AI Labs
(b) America-India Connect
(c) Digital Bharat Initiative
(d) AI for Science Fund
Answer: America-India Connect
Explanation: The initiative focuses on new fibre-optic routes, subsea cables, and an international gateway in India to improve digital resilience for AI-era traffic.

Q3. How much does Microsoft plan to invest by 2030 to expand AI access across the Global South?
(a) $10 billion
(b) $25 billion
(c) $50 billion
(d) $100 billion
Answer: $50 billion
Explanation: Microsoft announced a $50 billion investment to help bridge AI adoption gaps in developing and emerging economies, referred to as the ‘Global South’.

Q4. Which Indian academic institutions are part of OpenAI’s collaboration cohort for promoting responsible AI?
(a) IIT Delhi, IIM Ahmedabad, AIIMS New Delhi, Manipal Academy of Higher Education, UPES, Pearl Academy
(b) JNU, BITS Pilani, ISRO Training Centre
(c) IIT Bombay, NIT Trichy, AIIMS Bangalore
(d) Delhi University, Jadavpur University, IISc Bangalore
Answer: IIT Delhi, IIM Ahmedabad, AIIMS New Delhi, Manipal Academy of Higher Education, UPES, Pearl Academy
Explanation: OpenAI’s partnership aims to support over 100,000 students, faculty, and staff in systematic and responsible AI adoption across campuses.

Q5. What is the main purpose of Yotta Data Services’ $2 billion investment announced at the summit?
(a) Renewable energy projects
(b) AI computing hub development using Nvidia chips
(c) Manufacturing of AI robots
(d) Cloud storage for government data
Answer: AI computing hub development using Nvidia chips
Explanation: Yotta plans to build a large-scale AI computing hub and raise capital for potential IPO, enhancing India’s AI infrastructure and compute capacity.

India Endorses UN Statement Condemning Israel’s Actions in the West Bank

Q1. What action did India take regarding Israel’s activities in the West Bank?
(a) Sent military support
(b) Endorsed a UN statement condemning Israel’s actions
(c) Signed a trade agreement with Israel
(d) Withdrew diplomatic ties
Answer: Endorsed a UN statement condemning Israel’s actions
Explanation: India joined over 100 countries and international organisations in condemning unilateral Israeli measures in the West Bank, highlighting violations of international law.

Q2. The UN joint statement condemned Israel for actions that primarily aimed at:
(a) Expanding settlements and consolidating control over the West Bank
(b) Promoting tourism in East Jerusalem
(c) Establishing free trade zones
(d) Reducing environmental pollution
Answer: Expanding settlements and consolidating control over the West Bank
Explanation: The statement criticised Israel’s unilateral efforts to expand presence in occupied territories and alter demographic composition, calling for immediate reversal.

Q3. India’s endorsement reflects support for which solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict?
(a) One-state solution
(b) Two-state solution
(c) Annexation of West Bank
(d) Military intervention
Answer: Two-state solution
Explanation: India has consistently supported a negotiated two-state solution based on dialogue, while maintaining strategic ties with Israel and engagement with Palestine.

Q4. Since when has the West Bank been under Israeli occupation?
(a) 1948 Arab-Israeli War
(b) 1967 Six-Day War
(c) 1973 Yom Kippur War
(d) 1993 Oslo Accord
Answer: 1967 Six-Day War
Explanation: Israel occupied the West Bank during the Six-Day War of 1967; East Jerusalem is claimed by both Israel and Palestine.

Q5. The timing of India’s endorsement is diplomatically significant because:
(a) It coincided with India joining NATO
(b) It preceded the Prime Minister’s visit to Israel
(c) It marked the UN General Assembly elections
(d) It was the start of India-Palestine trade talks
Answer: It preceded the Prime Minister’s visit to Israel
Explanation: India’s endorsement came just before Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s scheduled visit to Tel Aviv and Jerusalem, reflecting strategic diplomatic balance.

Delhi Declaration Adopted at India AI Impact Summit 2026

Q1. What is the Delhi Declaration described as in the context of AI governance?
(a) A technical AI manual
(b) Magna Carta of AI
(c) A trade agreement
(d) An AI safety protocol
Answer: Magna Carta of AI
Explanation: The Delhi Declaration is being called the “Magna Carta of AI” for its focus on inclusive development, equity, and innovation-led growth, shifting the global AI debate beyond mere risk mitigation.

Q2. How many guiding principles, or ‘Sutras’, form the core of the Delhi Declaration?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight
Answer: Seven
Explanation: The declaration outlines seven Sutras emphasizing trust, human dignity, innovation, fairness, accountability, transparency, and safety in AI deployment.

Q3. What does the Delhi Declaration seek to prevent through the concept of ‘AI extractivism’?
(a) Overregulation of AI
(b) Use of data from developing countries without proportional returns
(c) Export of AI models to developed countries
(d) Excessive AI investment in startups
Answer: Use of data from developing countries without proportional returns
Explanation: ‘AI extractivism’ refers to exploiting local data to train global AI models without retaining value; the declaration promotes data sovereignty and sovereign AI capabilities.

Q4. Which operational pillar of the Delhi Declaration promotes energy-efficient computing and climate-conscious AI?
(a) People
(b) Planet
(c) Progress
(d) Prosperity
Answer: Planet
Explanation: The “Planet” pillar advances Green AI, encouraging energy-efficient AI models and shared climate data to reduce the environmental impact of computing.

Q5. What is the purpose of the “Compute Bank” proposed under the Delhi Declaration?
(a) Store AI research papers
(b) Provide democratised access to high-end computing resources
(c) Regulate AI startups in India
(d) Monitor AI compliance in schools
Answer: Provide democratised access to high-end computing resources
Explanation: The “Compute Bank” aims to offer global access to high-performance computing, inspired by India’s model of subsidised GPU access for startups, supporting equitable AI development.

Kerala Declares Tidal Flooding as a State-Specific Disaster

Q1. Which State has declared tidal flooding as a State-specific disaster for the first time in India?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Odisha
Answer: Kerala
Explanation: Kerala became the first State in India to officially recognise tidal flooding as a State-specific disaster, allowing affected people to receive financial assistance.

Q2. Financial assistance for victims of tidal flooding in Kerala will be provided under which fund?
(a) National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)
(b) Prime Minister’s Relief Fund
(c) State Disaster Mitigation Fund
(d) State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)
Answer: State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)
Explanation: After declaring tidal flooding as a State-specific disaster, Kerala enabled victims to receive compensation under the SDRF norms.

Q3. Under which legal provision did Kerala classify tidal flooding as a disaster?
(a) Article 356 of the Constitution
(b) Section 144 of CrPC
(c) Section 2(d) of the Disaster Management Act
(d) Article 21 of the Constitution
Answer: Section 2(d) of the Disaster Management Act
Explanation: Section 2(d) allows a State to declare a natural event as a disaster if it causes significant damage to life, livelihood, and property.

Q4. Tidal flooding in Kerala mainly occurs when water from which sea rises above a defined threshold?
(a) Bay of Bengal
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Red Sea
Answer: Arabian Sea
Explanation: Kerala lies along the Arabian Sea coast, and tidal flooding happens when sea water temporarily rises and enters low-lying coastal areas.

Q5. Which region of Kerala is known to lie below sea level and is highly vulnerable to tidal flooding?
(a) Wayanad
(b) Idukki
(c) Kuttanad
(d) Palakkad
Answer: Kuttanad
Explanation: The Kuttanad region, located in Alappuzha district, lies below sea level, making it particularly vulnerable to seawater intrusion and tidal flooding.

Assam Launches Provincialisation Management System (PMS) Portal

Q1. Which State has launched the Provincialisation Management System (PMS) portal?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Assam
(c) Tripura
(d) Manipur
Answer: Assam
Explanation: The PMS portal was launched by the Assam government to streamline the provincialisation of venture educational institutions and their staff.

Q2. The Provincialisation Management System (PMS) portal was launched by which Chief Minister?
(a) Pema Khandu
(b) Conrad Sangma
(c) Himanta Biswa Sarma
(d) Neiphiu Rio
Answer: Himanta Biswa Sarma
Explanation: Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma launched the PMS portal at Lok Sewa Bhawan to ensure transparency and efficiency in the provincialisation process.

Q3. The provincialisation process in Assam is governed by which Act?
(a) Right to Education Act, 2009
(b) Assam Education Act, 2010
(c) Assam Education (Provincialisation of Services of Teachers and Re-Organisation of Educational Institutions) Act, 2017
(d) University Grants Commission Act, 1956
Answer: Assam Education (Provincialisation of Services of Teachers and Re-Organisation of Educational Institutions) Act, 2017
Explanation: The provincialisation of services is carried out under the Assam Education Act, 2017, which regulates the process of bringing venture institutions under state control.

Q4. Under the current phase, only institutions established before which date are eligible for provincialisation?
(a) January 1, 2000
(b) January 1, 2005
(c) January 1, 2006
(d) January 1, 2010
Answer: January 1, 2006
Explanation: As per the eligibility criteria, only venture institutions established before January 1, 2006 can apply for provincialisation in the present phase.

Q5. What is the main objective of the newly introduced ‘Gurudakshina’ scheme?
(a) To provide scholarships to students
(b) To offer financial support to ineligible teaching staff
(c) To fund new private schools
(d) To promote digital education
Answer: To offer financial support to ineligible teaching staff
Explanation: The Gurudakshina scheme provides a financial package and preferential support to teachers whose services cannot be provincialised under the Act.

MeitY Launches VoicERA – Open-Source Voice AI Stack under BHASHINI

Q1. Which ministry launched the VoicERA Voice AI stack at the India AI Impact Summit 2026?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Communications
(c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
(d) Ministry of Education
Answer: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
Explanation: VoicERA was unveiled by MeitY as part of India’s efforts to strengthen Digital Public Infrastructure for multilingual Voice AI systems.

Q2. VoicERA has been deployed on which national language platform?
(a) DigiLocker
(b) UMANG
(c) BHASHINI
(d) BharatNet
Answer: BHASHINI
Explanation: VoicERA has been integrated with BHASHINI, India’s National Language Infrastructure, enabling multilingual voice and language AI services at scale.

Q3. VoicERA is best described as which of the following?
(a) A private cloud-based chatbot service
(b) An open-source, end-to-end Voice AI stack
(c) A social media platform for regional languages
(d) A data storage system for government offices
Answer: An open-source, end-to-end Voice AI stack
Explanation: VoicERA is designed as an open-source and modular Voice AI stack that supports scalable and secure deployment across sectors.

Q4. Which organisation’s CEO, Amitabh Nag, played a key role in spearheading the initiative?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Digital India BHASHINI Division
(c) NIC
(d) ISRO
Answer: Digital India BHASHINI Division
Explanation: Amitabh Nag, CEO of the Digital India BHASHINI Division, led the initiative in collaboration with academic and non-profit institutions.

Q5. The launch of VoicERA mainly supports which broader national objective?
(a) Expansion of 5G services
(b) Promotion of cryptocurrency
(c) Sovereign and inclusive AI development
(d) Satellite-based communication
Answer: Sovereign and inclusive AI development
Explanation: VoicERA strengthens India’s Digital Public Infrastructure by promoting secure, scalable and multilingual Voice AI systems, supporting sovereign and inclusive AI capabilities.

MeitY Launches ‘AI Impact Startup Book’ at India AI Impact Summit 2026

Q1. Which ministry launched the “AI Impact Startup Book” at the India AI Impact Summit 2026?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) Ministry of Education
Answer: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
Explanation: MeitY unveiled the AI Impact Startup Book to map India’s AI and deep-tech startup ecosystem and highlight its global competitiveness.

Q2. The National Informatics Centre (NIC) functions under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
(d) Ministry of Skill Development
Answer: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
Explanation: NIC operates under MeitY and plays a key role in supporting India’s digital governance and AI initiatives.

Q3. According to the report, approximately what percentage of growth-stage AI startups operate internationally?
(a) 47%
(b) 55%
(c) 68%
(d) 75%
Answer: 68%
Explanation: The compendium notes that 68% of growth-stage AI startups have international operations, showing India’s expanding global presence in AI innovation.

Q4. How many AI solutions are mapped in the AI Impact Startup Book?
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 150
Answer: 100
Explanation: The publication lists 100 AI solutions and aims to scale at least 10 impactful solutions within 12–18 months.

Q5. Which of the following sectors is highlighted as a key growth area in India’s AI ecosystem?
(a) Mining Technology
(b) Healthcare AI
(c) Textile Manufacturing
(d) Shipbuilding
Answer: Healthcare AI
Explanation: The report highlights strong representation in healthcare AI along with foundation models and indigenous AI infrastructure as major growth areas.

India Signs Five-Year Rice Supply Agreement with UN World Food Programme (WFP)

Q1. India has signed a five-year rice supply agreement with which United Nations agency?
(a) UNICEF
(b) FAO
(c) World Food Programme (WFP)
(d) UNDP
Answer: World Food Programme (WFP)
Explanation: India signed the agreement with the World Food Programme, the UN’s food assistance agency, to support global hunger relief efforts.

Q2. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for rice supply was signed between WFP and which Indian organisation?
(a) NAFED
(b) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
(c) FSSAI
(d) NABARD
Answer: Food Corporation of India (FCI)
Explanation: The MoU was signed between WFP and the Food Corporation of India, which manages procurement and distribution of food grains in India.

Q3. Under the agreement, India will supply up to how much rice over five years?
(a) 50,000 metric tonnes
(b) 100,000 metric tonnes
(c) 150,000 metric tonnes
(d) 200,000 metric tonnes
Answer: 200,000 metric tonnes
Explanation: India has committed to supply up to 200,000 metric tonnes of rice over five years to support emergency food assistance operations.

Q4. For the current supply cycle, what price has been fixed for rice until March 31, 2026?
(a) Rs 2,000 per quintal
(b) Rs 2,500 per quintal
(c) Rs 2,800 per quintal
(d) Rs 3,200 per quintal
Answer: Rs 2,800 per quintal
Explanation: The rice price has been fixed at Rs 2,800 per quintal for the current cycle, ensuring stability in procurement and planning.

Q5. The “Zero Hunger” objective is associated with which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)?
(a) SDG 1
(b) SDG 2
(c) SDG 3
(d) SDG 5
Answer: SDG 2
Explanation: Zero Hunger is Sustainable Development Goal 2, which aims to end hunger, achieve food security and improve nutrition globally.

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