18 – 19 January – Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)
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18 – 19 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test
Vijender Singh Appointed as Member of the Asian Boxing Council
Q1. Who has been appointed as a member of the Asian Boxing Council recently?
(a) Mary Kom
(b) Vijender Singh
(c) Lovlina Borgohain
(d) Amit Panghal
Answer: Vijender Singh
Explanation: Indian boxing icon Vijender Singh has been appointed as a member of the Asian Boxing Council, marking his transition from elite athlete to continental sports administrator.
Q2. Vijender Singh won India’s first Olympic medal in boxing at which Olympic Games?
(a) Athens 2004
(b) London 2012
(c) Rio 2016
(d) Beijing 2008
Answer: Beijing 2008
Explanation: Vijender Singh created history by winning a bronze medal in boxing at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, India’s first-ever Olympic boxing medal.
Q3. What is the primary role of the Asian Boxing Council?
(a) Organising the Olympic Games
(b) Managing professional boxing leagues
(c) Governing and developing boxing across Asia
(d) Selecting national teams for Asia
Answer: Governing and developing boxing across Asia
Explanation: The Asian Boxing Council is responsible for policy formulation, technical standards, and long-term development of boxing in Asian countries.
Q4. Which organisation is the national governing body for boxing in India?
(a) Sports Authority of India
(b) Indian Olympic Association
(c) Boxing Federation of India
(d) Asian Boxing Council
Answer: Boxing Federation of India
Explanation: The Boxing Federation of India (BFI) is the official national governing body responsible for boxing in India.
Q5. Vijender Singh’s appointment is significant mainly because it reflects which broader trend?
(a) Decline of amateur boxing
(b) Increased private sponsorship in sports
(c) India’s growing role in international sports governance
(d) Shift from Olympic sports to professional leagues
Answer: India’s growing role in international sports governance
Explanation: His induction into the Asian Boxing Council highlights India’s increasing representation and influence in global and continental sports decision-making bodies.
IIM Rohtak Director Prof. Dheeraj Sharma Conferred Exemplary Governance Leadership Award
Q1. Who has been awarded the Exemplary Governance Leadership Award at the 46th World Management Congress?
(a) Prof. Rishikesha T. Krishnan
(b) Prof. Dheeraj Sharma
(c) Prof. Asish Mishra
(d) Prof. Manoj Pant
Answer: Prof. Dheeraj Sharma
Explanation: Prof. Dheeraj Sharma, Director of IIM Rohtak, received the award for his contribution to institutional governance, academic innovation, and financial discipline.
Q2. The Exemplary Governance Leadership Award was conferred at which event?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) Global Education Summit
(c) World Management Congress
(d) India Leadership Conclave
Answer: World Management Congress
Explanation: The award was presented at the 46th World Management Congress, which focuses on leadership, governance, and best management practices.
Q3. Which major academic programme introduced by IIM Rohtak was the first of its kind among all IIMs?
(a) Integrated Programme in Management
(b) Executive MBA Programme
(c) Integrated Programme in Law
(d) Doctoral Programme in Management
Answer: Integrated Programme in Law
Explanation: IIM Rohtak became the first IIM to introduce an Integrated Programme in Law, marking a significant academic innovation.
Q4. Which international accreditations strengthened the global standing of IIM Rohtak under Prof. Sharma’s leadership?
(a) AACSB and EQUIS
(b) NAAC and NBA
(c) QS and THE
(d) AMBA and BGA
Answer: AMBA and BGA
Explanation: AMBA (Association of MBAs) and BGA (Business Graduates Association) accreditations are global quality benchmarks for management education.
Q5. According to Prof. Dheeraj Sharma, which factor is most crucial for achieving institutional excellence in higher education?
(a) Large infrastructure expansion
(b) Student intake growth
(c) Financial and academic autonomy
(d) International student exchange
Answer: Financial and academic autonomy
Explanation: Prof. Sharma highlighted that autonomy, especially financial autonomy, along with value-based education, is essential for sustainable institutional excellence.
Indian-Origin Attorney Keshav Poddar Appointed Deputy Mayor of Jersey City
Q1. Who has been sworn in as the Deputy Mayor of Jersey City for housing and economic development?
(a) Gurbir Grewal
(b) James Solomon
(c) Keshav Poddar
(d) Raj Mukherji
Answer: Keshav Poddar
Explanation: Indian-origin attorney Keshav Poddar has taken charge as Deputy Mayor of Jersey City, overseeing housing and economic development.
Q2. On which religious text did Keshav Poddar take his oath of office?
(a) Rig Veda
(b) Upanishads
(c) Ramayana
(d) Bhagwat Gita
Answer: Bhagwat Gita
Explanation: Poddar took his oath on the Bhagwat Gita, highlighting his Indian heritage while assuming office.
Q3. Jersey City is located in which US state?
(a) New York
(b) California
(c) New Jersey
(d) Pennsylvania
Answer: New Jersey
Explanation: Jersey City is the second-largest city in the US state of New Jersey, an important fact for competitive exams.
Q4. Before becoming Deputy Mayor, Keshav Poddar most recently served in which US federal administration?
(a) Donald Trump administration
(b) Barack Obama administration
(c) George W. Bush administration
(d) Joe Biden–Kamala Harris administration
Answer: Joe Biden–Kamala Harris administration
Explanation: Poddar worked as an economic policy adviser in the Joe Biden–Kamala Harris administration at the federal level.
Q5. What is Keshav Poddar’s primary policy portfolio as Deputy Mayor of Jersey City?
(a) Public safety and policing
(b) Education and health
(c) Housing and economic development
(d) Transportation and environment
Answer: Housing and economic development
Explanation: As Deputy Mayor, Poddar will oversee affordable housing, workforce housing, and inclusive economic development policies across Jersey City.
US Invites India to Join Proposed “Board of Peace” for Post-War Gaza Governance
Q1. Which US President has invited India to join the proposed international “Board of Peace” for Gaza?
(a) Joe Biden
(b) Barack Obama
(c) George W. Bush
(d) Donald Trump
Answer: Donald Trump
Explanation: According to official sources, US President Donald Trump proposed the formation of a “Board of Peace” and invited India to be part of it.
Q2. The proposed “Board of Peace” is primarily aimed at overseeing post-war governance and reconstruction of which region?
(a) West Bank
(b) Syria
(c) Gaza
(d) Lebanon
Answer: Gaza
Explanation: The Board of Peace is intended to manage Gaza’s post-war transition, reconstruction, and long-term governance.
Q3. Why is India’s inclusion in the Gaza plan considered strategically significant?
(a) India is a permanent member of the UN Security Council
(b) India has military bases in West Asia
(c) India maintains balanced relations with both Israel and Palestine
(d) India is the largest donor to Gaza
Answer: India maintains balanced relations with both Israel and Palestine
Explanation: India has strong ties with Israel while also recognising Palestine and providing humanitarian assistance, making it a credible and neutral stakeholder.
Q4. According to the White House, what will be the main role of the “Board of Peace”?
(a) Conduct military operations in Gaza
(b) Supervise elections in Israel
(c) Guide governance, reconstruction, and investment planning
(d) Replace the Palestinian Authority
Answer: Guide governance, reconstruction, and investment planning
Explanation: The Board of Peace is expected to focus on governance capacity-building, reconstruction planning, and mobilising international funding.
Q5. Which country has publicly accepted the invitation to join the proposed Board of Peace so far?
(a) France
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Germany
(d) Hungary
Answer: Hungary
Explanation: Hungary is the only country that has openly accepted the invitation, while others have shown caution due to geopolitical sensitivities.
Nobel Peace Prize Controversy After Medal Handover to Donald Trump
Q1. Which Venezuelan opposition leader presented her Nobel Peace Prize medal to US President Donald Trump?
(a) Delcy Rodríguez
(b) María Corina Machado
(c) Luisa Ortega Díaz
(d) Leopoldo López
Answer: María Corina Machado
Explanation: Venezuelan opposition leader María Corina Machado handed over her Nobel Peace Prize medal to Donald Trump during a White House meeting.
Q2. From a legal standpoint, can a Nobel Peace Prize be transferred or gifted to another person?
(a) Yes, with Nobel Committee approval
(b) Yes, if prize money is included
(c) Only the medal can be transferred
(d) No, the prize is non-transferable
Answer: No, the prize is non-transferable
Explanation: Nobel statutes clearly state that a Nobel Prize is awarded to an individual or organisation for life and cannot be transferred, gifted, or reassigned.
Q3. Why was the handover of the Nobel Peace Prize medal described as symbolic rather than legal?
(a) The medal was a replica
(b) Ownership of the Nobel Prize does not change
(c) Trump refused the prize money
(d) The Nobel Committee later approved it
Answer: Ownership of the Nobel Prize does not change
Explanation: Laureates may donate or display their medals, but legal ownership of the Nobel Prize always remains with the original recipient.
Q4. What political message was María Corina Machado likely signalling by giving her Nobel medal to Trump?
(a) Opposition to US sanctions
(b) Support for UN-led mediation
(c) Alignment with Washington and US backing
(d) Rejection of democracy promotion
Answer: Alignment with Washington and US backing
Explanation: The gesture was aimed at signalling political alignment with the United States and seeking Trump’s support during Venezuela’s uncertain political transition.
Q5. The controversy highlights which broader issue related to global awards like the Nobel Peace Prize?
(a) Lack of transparency in selection
(b) Declining global relevance
(c) Use of awards as political symbolism
(d) Financial misuse of prize money
Answer: Use of awards as political symbolism
Explanation: The episode shows how international awards can be used as symbolic political tools, even when their legal meaning remains unchanged.
UAE President Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan’s Official Visit to India
Q1. Who invited UAE President Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan for an official visit to India on January 19?
(a) President of India
(b) External Affairs Minister of India
(c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(d) Vice President of India
Answer: Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Explanation: The official visit of UAE President Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan to India is taking place at the invitation of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
Q2. How many official visits has Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan made to India since becoming the President of the UAE?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer: Three
Explanation: This is his third official visit to India since assuming office as the President of the United Arab Emirates.
Q3. Which agreement plays a key role in strengthening trade and investment ties between India and the UAE?
(a) Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
(b) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
(c) Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
(d) South Asia Trade Agreement (SATA)
Answer: Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
Explanation: The CEPA between India and the UAE is a major enabler of bilateral trade growth and investment cooperation.
Q4. India–UAE diplomatic relations were formally established in which year?
(a) 1965
(b) 1972
(c) 1981
(d) 1991
Answer: 1972
Explanation: India and the UAE established formal diplomatic relations in 1972, an important static GK fact for exams.
Q5. India and the UAE cooperate together in which of the following plurilateral groupings?
(a) SAARC
(b) QUAD
(c) I2U2
(d) ASEAN
Answer: I2U2
Explanation: India and the UAE work closely in plurilateral platforms such as I2U2, BRICS, and the UAE–France–India trilateral framework.
Tamil Nadu Launches “Semmozhi Illakiya Virudhu” Literary Award
Q1. Which state government has announced the “Semmozhi Illakiya Virudhu” literary award?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: Tamil Nadu
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu government announced the new state-sponsored literary award to recognise outstanding works in major Indian languages other than Hindi.
Q2. Who unveiled the Semmozhi Illakiya Virudhu at the Chennai International Book Fair?
(a) Governor of Tamil Nadu
(b) Union Culture Minister
(c) Chief Minister M K Stalin
(d) Education Minister of Tamil Nadu
Answer: Chief Minister M K Stalin
Explanation: Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Stalin announced the award at the valedictory ceremony of the Chennai International Book Fair.
Q3. What is the cash prize associated with each Semmozhi Illakiya Virudhu award?
(a) ₹1 lakh
(b) ₹2.5 lakh
(c) ₹5 lakh
(d) ₹10 lakh
Answer: ₹5 lakh
Explanation: Each award under the Semmozhi Illakiya Virudhu carries a cash prize of ₹5 lakh.
Q4. How many Indian languages are covered under the award in its first phase?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight
Answer: Seven
Explanation: In the initial phase, the award will be given for literary works in seven languages: Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Odiya, Bengali, and Marathi.
Q5. Who will be responsible for selecting the award recipients under the Semmozhi Illakiya Virudhu?
(a) Tamil Nadu government officials
(b) Union Ministry of Culture
(c) Sahitya Akademi
(d) Independent expert committees
Answer: Independent expert committees
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu government will act only as a patron, while independent committees of reputed writers will handle the selection to ensure transparency and autonomy.
India Conducts First Comprehensive Safety Assessment of Hydrogen Compressor-Dispenser System
Q1. Which organisation conducted India’s first comprehensive safety assessment of a hydrogen compressor-dispenser system?
(a) CSIR-NAL
(b) CSIR-CIMFR
(c) DRDO
(d) BHEL
Answer: CSIR-CIMFR
Explanation: The safety assessment was carried out by the Dhanbad-based CSIR-Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research (CSIR-CIMFR).
Q2. The hydrogen compressor-dispenser system assessed falls under which hazardous gas classification?
(a) Gas Group IIA
(b) Gas Group IIB
(c) Gas Group IIC
(d) Gas Group III
Answer: Gas Group IIC
Explanation: Gas Group IIC represents highly explosive industrial environments, making strict safety compliance essential.
Q3. Where is the hydrogen compressor-dispenser facility installed?
(a) IIT Delhi campus
(b) BHEL Hyderabad
(c) NTPC NETRA campus, Greater Noida
(d) CSIR-CIMFR Dhanbad
Answer: NTPC NETRA campus, Greater Noida
Explanation: The facility is installed at the NETRA campus of NTPC Ltd in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
Q4. Under which national initiative does this safety assessment strengthen India’s hydrogen preparedness?
(a) National Electric Mobility Mission
(b) National Solar Mission
(c) National Hydrogen Mission
(d) National Bio-Energy Mission
Answer: National Hydrogen Mission
Explanation: The assessment supports the objectives of the National Hydrogen Mission by enabling safe scaling of hydrogen infrastructure.
Q5. Why is this safety assessment considered a landmark achievement?
(a) It certified only electrical components
(b) It focused only on laboratory testing
(c) It provided integrated system-level safety certification
(d) It was conducted outside India
Answer: It provided integrated system-level safety certification
Explanation: Although individual components were certified earlier, this was India’s first integrated, full-system safety assessment of a hydrogen compressor-dispenser unit.
Chile Declares State of Emergency After Deadly Wildfires in Southern Regions
Q1. Which country has declared a state of emergency following devastating wildfires in its southern regions?
(a) Argentina
(b) Peru
(c) Chile
(d) Brazil
Answer: Chile
Explanation: Chile declared a state of emergency after severe wildfires killed at least 15 people and forced large-scale evacuations.
Q2. The worst-affected wildfires are raging in which two regions of Chile?
(a) Atacama and Coquimbo
(b) Valparaíso and Maule
(c) Nuble and Biobio
(d) Los Lagos and Aysén
Answer: Nuble and Biobio
Explanation: The fires are concentrated in the Nuble and Biobio regions, located about 500 km south of Santiago.
Q3. Which Chilean President announced the state of emergency in the affected regions?
(a) Michelle Bachelet
(b) Sebastián Piñera
(c) Gabriel Boric
(d) Ricardo Lagos
Answer: Gabriel Boric
Explanation: President Gabriel Boric authorised the state of emergency and allowed the armed forces to assist civilian authorities.
Q4. Approximately how many people have been evacuated due to the wildfires?
(a) 10,000
(b) 25,000
(c) 40,000
(d) More than 50,000
Answer: More than 50,000
Explanation: Over 50,000 residents were evacuated, mainly from the coastal towns of Penco and Lirquen.
Q5. Chile experiences its highest wildfire risk during which period?
(a) Winter months
(b) Monsoon season
(c) Southern hemisphere summer
(d) Spring transition period
Answer: Southern hemisphere summer
Explanation: High temperatures and strong winds during the southern hemisphere summer significantly increase wildfire risk in Chile.
Lt K M Sudha Becomes First from Northeast to Win Gold at NCC Officers’ Training
Q1. Who became the first individual from India’s Northeast to win a gold medal at a national NCC officers’ training event?
(a) Lt Anjali Sharma
(b) Lt K M Sudha
(c) Lt Ritu Raj
(d) Lt Neha Verma
Answer: Lt K M Sudha
Explanation: Lieutenant K M Sudha created history by becoming the first person from India’s Northeast to secure a gold medal at a national-level NCC officers’ training event.
Q2. Where was the NCC officers’ training event held in which Lt Sudha won the gold medal?
(a) NDA, Khadakwasla
(b) OTA, Chennai
(c) OTA, Gwalior
(d) IMA, Dehradun
Answer: OTA, Gwalior
Explanation: The prestigious NCC officers’ training event was conducted at the Officer Training Academy (OTA), Gwalior.
Q3. How many Associate NCC Officers did Lt Sudha compete against at the training event?
(a) 75
(b) 100
(c) 127
(d) 150
Answer: 127
Explanation: Lt Sudha outperformed 127 Associate NCC Officers from across the country to emerge as the top performer.
Q4. Lt K M Sudha serves as an Associate NCC Officer under which NCC battalion?
(a) 10 Assam Battalion
(b) 20 Assam Battalion
(c) 30 Assam Battalion
(d) 40 Assam Battalion
Answer: 30 Assam Battalion
Explanation: She serves as an Associate NCC Officer under the 30 Assam Battalion of the National Cadet Corps.
Q5. The National Cadet Corps functions under which ministry of the Government of India?
(a) Ministry of Education
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
(d) Ministry of Defence
Answer: Ministry of Defence
Explanation: The National Cadet Corps operates under the Ministry of Defence and focuses on discipline, leadership, and national integration.
New Subterranean Amphibian Species “Gegeneophis valmiki” Discovered in Western Ghats
Q1. What is the name of the rare subterranean amphibian species recently discovered in Maharashtra?
(a) Ichthyophis sahyadris
(b) Gegeneophis valmiki
(c) Uraeotyphlus sataraensis
(d) Indotyphlus maharashtrensis
Answer: Gegeneophis valmiki
Explanation: Indian scientists discovered a new caecilian species named Gegeneophis valmiki in the northern Western Ghats of Maharashtra.
Q2. The newly discovered species “Gegeneophis valmiki” belongs to which group of amphibians?
(a) Frogs
(b) Salamanders
(c) Caecilians
(d) Newts
Answer: Caecilians
Explanation: Gegeneophis valmiki is a caecilian, a group of limbless amphibians adapted to underground (fossorial) life.
Q3. In which region was “Gegeneophis valmiki” first collected during faunal surveys?
(a) Nilgiri Hills, Tamil Nadu
(b) Valmiki Plateau, Satara district
(c) Silent Valley, Kerala
(d) Araku Valley, Andhra Pradesh
Answer: Valmiki Plateau, Satara district
Explanation: The species was first collected in 2017 from the Valmiki Plateau in Satara district of Maharashtra.
Q4. Which organisation led the research team that identified the new amphibian species?
(a) Botanical Survey of India
(b) Wildlife Institute of India
(c) Zoological Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Science
Answer: Zoological Survey of India
Explanation: The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) led the multi-institutional research team that identified the species.
Q5. Why are caecilian species like “Gegeneophis valmiki” often discovered late by scientists?
(a) They live in deep ocean zones
(b) They are active only at night
(c) They have very short lifespans
(d) They spend most of their lives underground
Answer: They spend most of their lives underground
Explanation: Caecilians are fossorial amphibians with an underground lifestyle, making them difficult to observe and study.
Phytoplankton Bloom Observed Near Chatham Islands East of New Zealand
Q1. Where were the striking phytoplankton blooms observed that appeared as green and blue swirls visible from space?
(a) Tasman Sea
(b) Coral Sea
(c) Chatham Islands
(d) Bering Sea
Answer: Chatham Islands
Explanation: The vivid phytoplankton bloom was observed around the Chatham Islands, located about 800 km east of New Zealand’s South Island.
Q2. Which satellite instrument captured images of the phytoplankton bloom in January 2026?
(a) MODIS onboard Aqua satellite
(b) Sentinel-2 MSI
(c) VIIRS onboard NOAA-20
(d) Landsat-8 OLI
Answer: VIIRS onboard NOAA-20
Explanation: The bloom was recorded by the Visible Infrared Imaging Radiometer Suite (VIIRS) carried by the NOAA-20 satellite.
Q3. The Chatham Islands are situated on which important underwater geological feature?
(a) Tonga Trench
(b) Chatham Rise
(c) Kermadec Ridge
(d) Campbell Plateau
Answer: Chatham Rise
Explanation: The islands lie atop the Chatham Rise, an underwater plateau that enhances ocean mixing and supports high biological productivity.
Q4. What oceanographic process mainly supports frequent phytoplankton blooms near the Chatham Rise?
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Riverine nutrient discharge
(c) Mixing of cold and warm ocean currents
(d) Coral reef upwelling
Answer: Mixing of cold and warm ocean currents
Explanation: Nutrient-rich cold currents mix with warmer subtropical waters along the Chatham Rise, creating ideal conditions for phytoplankton growth.
Q5. Why are phytoplankton considered ecologically important in marine ecosystems?
(a) They reduce ocean salinity
(b) They stabilise tectonic plates
(c) They form the base of marine food webs
(d) They prevent coral bleaching
Answer: They form the base of marine food webs
Explanation: Phytoplankton are microscopic photosynthetic organisms that support marine life by forming the foundation of ocean food chains.
Indian Scientists Develop “Disobind” AI Tool to Predict Protein Binding
Q1. Which Indian research institute developed the deep-learning tool “Disobind”?
(a) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
(b) National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS)
(c) Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB)
(d) All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)
Answer: National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS)
Explanation: The tool was developed at NCBS, which functions under the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), Bengaluru.
Q2. What type of proteins does Disobind specifically help to study?
(a) Enzyme proteins
(b) Structural proteins
(c) Intrinsically disordered proteins
(d) Membrane proteins
Answer: Intrinsically disordered proteins
Explanation: Disobind predicts how intrinsically disordered proteins (IDPs), which lack a fixed 3D structure, bind to their partner proteins.
Q3. Which artificial intelligence approach is used by Disobind to analyse protein sequences?
(a) Neural machine translation
(b) Protein language models
(c) Quantum computing algorithms
(d) Image recognition networks
Answer: Protein language models
Explanation: Disobind uses protein language models, a form of AI trained on millions of known protein sequences.
Q4. Against which existing AI tools was Disobind benchmarked for performance?
(a) Rosetta and PyMOL
(b) BLAST and Clustal Omega
(c) AlphaFold-Multimer and AlphaFold3
(d) Swiss-Model and Phyre2
Answer: AlphaFold-Multimer and AlphaFold3
Explanation: The research team compared Disobind with AlphaFold-Multimer and AlphaFold3 and found higher accuracy, especially for unseen protein pairs.
Q5. Why is the development of Disobind considered important for disease research and drug discovery?
(a) It predicts DNA mutations
(b) It maps entire genomes
(c) It identifies disease-linked protein interaction motifs
(d) It replaces laboratory experiments
Answer: It identifies disease-linked protein interaction motifs
Explanation: Disobind can help uncover interaction motifs linked to diseases and identify new therapeutic intervention points, aiding drug design.
Lokpal of India Foundation Day Observed on January 16
Q1. Which date is observed as the Foundation Day of the Lokpal of India?
(a) January 12
(b) January 15
(c) January 16
(d) January 18
Answer: January 16
Explanation: January 16 is observed as Lokpal Foundation Day because Section 3 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, came into force on January 16, 2014.
Q2. Under which Act was the Lokpal of India established?
(a) Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
(b) Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
(c) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
(d) Right to Information Act, 2005
Answer: Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
Explanation: The Lokpal of India was created under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, to function as the apex anti-corruption body.
Q3. Who is the current Chairperson of the Lokpal of India as mentioned in the event?
(a) Justice Lingappa Narayana Swami
(b) Justice A. M. Khanwilkar
(c) Justice N. Santosh Hegde
(d) Justice Ranjan Gogoi
Answer: Justice A. M. Khanwilkar
Explanation: Justice A. M. Khanwilkar is the Chairperson of the Lokpal of India and addressed the Foundation Day समारोह.
Q4. Why was the 2026 Lokpal Foundation Day observance held in a modest manner?
(a) Due to election code of conduct
(b) Because of COVID-19 restrictions
(c) Due to budgetary constraints and fiscal austerity
(d) Because of low public interest
Answer: Due to budgetary constraints and fiscal austerity
Explanation: Unlike the previous year’s public celebration, the 2026 event was held in-house because of fiscal austerity measures arising from budgetary constraints.
Q5. What major digital initiative was inaugurated during the Lokpal Foundation Day event?
(a) National Anti-Corruption App
(b) Online RTI Portal
(c) New IT infrastructure and Data Centre
(d) e-Court System
Answer: New IT infrastructure and Data Centre
Explanation: A newly built IT infrastructure and Data Centre was inaugurated to enable end-to-end digital and paperless processing of corruption complaints.
PM Modi Addresses Bagurumba Dwhou 2026 in Guwahati to Celebrate Bodo Heritage
Q1. At which venue did Prime Minister Narendra Modi address Bagurumba Dwhou 2026?
(a) Nehru Stadium, Delhi
(b) Sarusajai Stadium, Guwahati
(c) Indira Gandhi Stadium, Itanagar
(d) Barabati Stadium, Cuttack
Answer: Sarusajai Stadium, Guwahati
Explanation: The landmark cultural event Bagurumba Dwhou 2026 was held at Sarusajai Stadium in Guwahati, where Prime Minister Modi addressed the gathering.
Q2. Bagurumba, celebrated at Bagurumba Dwhou 2026, is associated with which community?
(a) Mishing community
(b) Karbi community
(c) Bodo community
(d) Dimasa community
Answer: Bodo community
Explanation: Bagurumba is a traditional folk dance of the Bodo community and represents their rich cultural heritage.
Q3. Which international recognition related to Assam’s heritage was highlighted by the Prime Minister?
(a) Kaziranga National Park as a Ramsar site
(b) Charaideo Moidam in UNESCO’s World Heritage list
(c) Majuli as a Biosphere Reserve
(d) Sivasagar as a Smart City
Answer: Charaideo Moidam in UNESCO’s World Heritage list
Explanation: The Prime Minister mentioned that Charaideo Moidam has been included in UNESCO’s World Heritage list, marking a major cultural milestone for Assam.
Q4. Which language has been recognised as an associate official language of Assam?
(a) Mishing
(b) Karbi
(c) Dimasa
(d) Bodo
Answer: Bodo
Explanation: Bodo has been granted the status of an associate official language of Assam, reflecting the state’s commitment to linguistic inclusion.
Q5. Which agreement, signed in 2020, was credited with restoring peace in Bodoland?
(a) Assam Accord
(b) Shillong Accord
(c) Bodo Peace Accord
(d) Panchsheel Agreement
Answer: Bodo Peace Accord
Explanation: The 2020 Bodo Peace Accord ended decades of conflict in the region and helped restore trust and stability in Bodoland, enabling development and youth integration into the mainstream.
2nd Global Buddhist Summit 2026 to be Held in New Delhi
Q1. Which organisation is responsible for organising the Global Buddhist Summit?
(a) Ministry of Tourism
(b) International Buddhist Confederation
(c) UNESCO
(d) Sahitya Akademi
Answer: International Buddhist Confederation
Explanation: The Global Buddhist Summit is organised by the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) in collaboration with the Ministry of Culture.
Q2. When will the second edition of the Global Buddhist Summit be आयोजित?
(a) January 10–11, 2026
(b) January 15–16, 2026
(c) January 24–25, 2026
(d) February 1–2, 2026
Answer: January 24–25, 2026
Explanation: The 2nd Global Buddhist Summit is scheduled to be held on January 24 and 25, 2026.
Q3. What is the venue for the 2nd Global Buddhist Summit 2026?
(a) Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
(b) Pragati Maidan, New Delhi
(c) Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
(d) India Habitat Centre, New Delhi
Answer: Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Explanation: The summit will take place at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi, a major venue for international conferences and cultural events.
Q4. What is the official theme of the 2nd Global Buddhist Summit?
(a) Peace Through Dharma
(b) Buddhism for Sustainable Development
(c) Collective Wisdom, United Voice, and Mutual Coexistence
(d) Harmony in Diversity
Answer: Collective Wisdom, United Voice, and Mutual Coexistence
Explanation: The summit will be organised under the theme “Collective Wisdom, United Voice, and Mutual Coexistence”, highlighting shared wisdom and peaceful coexistence.
Q5. Who is likely to inaugurate the 2nd Global Buddhist Summit as the Chief Guest?
(a) President of India
(b) Dalai Lama
(c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(d) Union Culture Minister
Answer: Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Explanation: As in the first edition in 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi is expected to inaugurate the summit as the Chief Guest.
India–Japan Joint HNS Response Drill Conducted in Mumbai
Q1. Which two countries’ coast guards conducted the joint Hazardous and Noxious Substances (HNS) response drill in Mumbai?
(a) India and Australia
(b) India and Japan
(c) India and the United States
(d) India and France
Answer: India and Japan
Explanation: The joint HNS response drill was conducted by the Indian Coast Guard and the Japan Coast Guard, strengthening their maritime partnership.
Q2. What does HNS stand for in the context of the joint maritime drill?
(a) High Nautical Security
(b) Hazardous and Noxious Substances
(c) Heavy Naval Systems
(d) Humanitarian Naval Support
Answer: Hazardous and Noxious Substances
Explanation: HNS refers to Hazardous and Noxious Substances, which pose serious risks to maritime safety and the marine environment.
Q3. Onboard which Indian Coast Guard vessel was the joint HNS response exercise conducted?
(a) ICGS Vikram
(b) ICGS Samarth
(c) ICGS Samudra Prahari
(d) ICGS Veer
Answer: ICGS Samudra Prahari
Explanation: The specialised joint drill was held onboard ICGS Samudra Prahari, a dedicated pollution response vessel of the Indian Coast Guard.
Q4. Who led the Japanese delegation that participated in the joint exercise?
(a) Admiral Katsutoshi Kawano
(b) Admiral Yoshio Seguchi
(c) Admiral Ryo Sakai
(d) Admiral Hiroshi Yamamura
Answer: Admiral Yoshio Seguchi
Explanation: Japan Coast Guard Commandant Admiral Yoshio Seguchi led the high-level delegation to Mumbai for the joint HNS response engagement.
Q5. Which Indian defence-industrial facility did the Japanese delegation visit during the engagement?
(a) Garden Reach Shipbuilders
(b) Cochin Shipyard Limited
(c) Hindustan Shipyard Limited
(d) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
Answer: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
Explanation: The Japanese delegation visited Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited to understand India’s shipbuilding capabilities and enhance defence-industrial cooperation.
India Launches First Open-Sea Marine Fish Farming Project in Andaman Sea
Q1. Where has India launched its first open-sea marine fish farming project?
(a) Lakshadweep Sea
(b) Arabian Sea near Mumbai
(c) Andaman Sea near North Bay
(d) Bay of Bengal near Chennai
Answer: Andaman Sea near North Bay
Explanation: The pilot project was inaugurated in the Andaman Sea near Sri Vijaya Puram, marking India’s first open-sea marine fish farming initiative.
Q2. Which Union Minister inaugurated the open-sea marine fish farming project?
(a) Nitin Gadkari
(b) Jitendra Singh
(c) Mansukh Mandaviya
(d) Dharmendra Pradhan
Answer: Jitendra Singh
Explanation: Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology and Earth Sciences, Jitendra Singh, inaugurated the project during a field visit.
Q3. Which organisation is implementing the pilot open-sea marine fish farming project?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
(b) National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)
(c) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI)
(d) Ministry of Fisheries
Answer: National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)
Explanation: The project is being implemented by NIOT under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, combining technology with livelihood opportunities for local communities.
Q4. What type of cultivation is the pilot project focusing on?
(a) Coastal shrimp farming
(b) Open-sea cultivation of finfish and seaweed
(c) Freshwater carp farming
(d) Inland aquaculture
Answer: Open-sea cultivation of finfish and seaweed
Explanation: The initiative focuses on open-sea farming using cages for marine finfish and promoting deep-water seaweed cultivation under natural oceanic conditions.
Q5. How does this project align with India’s national strategy?
(a) Promotes inland water conservation
(b) Expands freshwater fisheries only
(c) Supports India’s Blue Economy and sustainable ocean resource use
(d) Enhances coal-based energy production
Answer: Supports India’s Blue Economy and sustainable ocean resource use
Explanation: The pilot project is a key step in India’s Blue Economy strategy, aiming to utilise ocean resources sustainably for economic growth and livelihoods.
India’s Cooperative Movement and the International Year of Cooperatives 2025
Q1. In which year has the United Nations declared the International Year of Cooperatives?
(a) 2023
(b) 2024
(c) 2025
(d) 2026
Answer: 2025
Explanation: The UN declared 2025 as the International Year of Cooperatives under the theme “Cooperatives Build a Better World,” recognising their role in sustainable development and inclusive growth.
Q2. When was the Ministry of Cooperation in India established?
(a) 2019
(b) 2020
(c) 2021
(d) 2022
Answer: 2021
Explanation: The dedicated Ministry of Cooperation was established in July 2021 to provide focused national attention to the cooperative sector.
Q3. Approximately how many operational cooperative societies exist in India according to the National Cooperative Database?
(a) 5 lakh
(b) 6.6 lakh
(c) 7.5 lakh
(d) 8.5 lakh
Answer: 6.6 lakh
Explanation: Out of over 8.5 lakh cooperative societies in India, about 6.6 lakh are operational, covering nearly 98% of rural India.
Q4. Which of the following is NOT an initiative associated with modernising or expanding PACS in India?
(a) ERP-based computerisation
(b) Multi-purpose service centres
(c) Expansion of membership to women and SC/ST communities
(d) Privatization of all PACS
Answer: Privatization of all PACS
Explanation: Recent reforms focus on digitalisation, expanded mandates, and inclusion, but PACS are not being privatised—they remain member-owned cooperative institutions.
Q5. Which new apex cooperative is aimed at linking Indian cooperatives to international markets?
(a) National Cooperative Sugar Limited
(b) National Cooperative Exports Limited
(c) Tribhuvan Sahkari University
(d) National Dairy Development Cooperative
Answer: National Cooperative Exports Limited
Explanation: National Cooperative Exports Limited aggregates produce, ensures quality, and connects cooperatives to domestic and global markets, signalling a move towards market-integrated cooperative models.
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