17 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

17 January – Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

1706 – Benjamin Franklin was born

On 17 January 1706, Benjamin Franklin was born in Boston, USA.
He was a great scientist, inventor, writer and statesman, and one of the Founding Fathers of the United States.

1917 – Denmark sold the Virgin Islands to the USA

On this day, Denmark sold the Virgin Islands to the United States.
After this, the islands became known as the United States Virgin Islands.

1961 – Eisenhower’s Farewell Address

On 17 January 1961, US President Dwight D. Eisenhower delivered his farewell address.
In this speech, he warned about the influence of the military–industrial complex in national policy.

Today Latest Post Current Affairs

17 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Defence Procurement Board Clears Proposal for 114 Rafale Fighter Jets: Key MCQs for Competitive Exams

Q1. Which body has approved the proposal to acquire 114 Rafale fighter aircraft for the Indian Air Force?
(a) Defence Acquisition Council
(b) Cabinet Committee on Security
(c) Defence Procurement Board
(d) National Security Council
Answer: (c) Defence Procurement Board
Explanation: The Defence Procurement Board, headed by the Defence Secretary, has cleared the proposal as an initial step before it is sent to the Defence Acquisition Council for further approval.

Q2. How many Rafale fighter jets are currently operated by the Indian Air Force?
(a) 24
(b) 30
(c) 36
(d) 42
Answer: (c) 36
Explanation: The Indian Air Force presently operates 36 Rafale fighter jets, which were inducted earlier under a separate procurement deal.

Q3. If the new proposal is fully approved, how many Rafale fighter jets will India have in total?
(a) 114
(b) 150
(c) 162
(d) 176
Answer: (d) 176
Explanation: With the addition of 114 new Rafale jets to the existing fleet of 36, India’s total Rafale strength would rise to 176 aircraft.

Q4. Which French defence company is expected to partner with Indian firms under the ‘Made in India’ Rafale project?
(a) Thales Group
(b) Safran
(c) Dassault Aviation
(d) Airbus Defence
Answer: (c) Dassault Aviation
Explanation: The proposal envisages Dassault Aviation working in partnership with Indian aerospace companies, with over 60 percent indigenous content.

Q5. Rafale fighter jets were recently praised for their performance during which military operation?
(a) Operation Meghdoot
(b) Operation Sindoor
(c) Operation Gagan Shakti
(d) Operation Vijay
Answer: (b) Operation Sindoor
Explanation: During Operation Sindoor, Rafale jets reportedly outperformed Pakistan’s Chinese-origin PL-15 missiles using their advanced Spectra electronic warfare system, highlighting their combat effectiveness.

India Plans Liberalisation of FDI Norms in Defence Sector

Q1. India is planning to liberalise Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) norms in which sector to attract global manufacturers?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Defence
(c) Telecom
(d) Power
Answer: Defence
Explanation: The government is preparing to liberalise FDI norms in the defence sector to attract foreign companies and strengthen domestic defence manufacturing.

Q2. The proposed changes in defence FDI policy aim to achieve which primary objective?
(a) Increase defence exports only
(b) Reduce defence budget
(c) Boost indigenous manufacturing and reduce imports
(d) Privatise the armed forces
Answer: Boost indigenous manufacturing and reduce imports
Explanation: Liberalising FDI norms is intended to strengthen indigenous defence production and reduce India’s dependence on imported defence equipment.

Q3. According to the report, which news agency cited government sources regarding the proposed FDI liberalisation?
(a) Press Trust of India (PTI)
(b) ANI
(c) Bloomberg
(d) Reuters
Answer: Reuters
Explanation: The information about the proposed changes was reported by Reuters, citing government sources.

Q4. Liberalisation of FDI in the defence sector is most closely linked to which national objective?
(a) Digital India
(b) Make in India
(c) Skill India
(d) Startup India
Answer: Make in India
Explanation: Easing FDI norms in defence supports the Make in India initiative by encouraging global manufacturers to produce defence equipment within India.

Q5. Increasing foreign investment in defence manufacturing is expected to have which long-term benefit for India?
(a) Higher food production
(b) Improved space exploration
(c) Enhanced self-reliance in defence
(d) Reduction in population growth
Answer: Enhanced self-reliance in defence
Explanation: By attracting global defence manufacturers, India aims to build a strong domestic defence industry and achieve greater self-reliance in critical military technologies.

Aaryan Varshney Becomes India’s 92nd Chess Grandmaster

Q1. Who became India’s 92nd chess Grandmaster after securing his final GM norm?
(a) Nihal Sarin
(b) Aaryan Varshney
(c) Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa
(d) Arjun Erigaisi
Answer: Aaryan Varshney
Explanation: 21-year-old Aaryan Varshney earned the Grandmaster title, becoming the 92nd GM from India.

Q2. At which tournament did Aaryan Varshney clinch his final Grandmaster norm?
(a) Tata Steel Chess Tournament
(b) Asian Continental Championship
(c) Andranik Margaryan Memorial Tournament
(d) Biel International Chess Festival
Answer: Andranik Margaryan Memorial Tournament
Explanation: Aaryan secured his final GM norm at the Andranik Margaryan Memorial Tournament held in Armenia.

Q3. Who trained Aaryan Varshney throughout his chess career without involving any professional coach?
(a) His school teacher
(b) A foreign grandmaster
(c) His father, Gaurav Varshney
(d) A private chess academy
Answer: His father, Gaurav Varshney
Explanation: Aaryan was trained entirely at home by his father, Gaurav Varshney, a physics teacher, without any professional coaching support.

Q4. Which national title did Aaryan Varshney win in 2018 that marked his rise on the Indian chess scene?
(a) National Under-15 Championship
(b) National Under-13 Championship
(c) National Junior Championship
(d) National Open Championship
Answer: National Under-13 Championship
Explanation: He won the National Under-13 Championship in Ahmedabad in 2018, which brought him into national prominence.

Q5. Which of the following is a mandatory requirement to earn the chess Grandmaster title?
(a) Winning a national championship
(b) Defeating a reigning world champion
(c) Achieving three GM norms and a 2500 Elo rating
(d) Playing only European tournaments
Answer: Achieving three GM norms and a 2500 Elo rating
Explanation: To become a Grandmaster, a player must secure three GM norms and cross the 2500 Elo rating threshold, regardless of age or nationality.

Centre Intensifies Crackdown on Illegal Online Betting and Gambling

Q1. How many illegal online betting and gambling website links were reportedly blocked by the Centre in the latest action?
(a) 142
(b) 200
(c) 242
(d) 300
Answer: 242
Explanation: Government sources reported that 242 illegal betting and gambling website links were blocked in the latest enforcement action.

Q2. The Online Gaming Act, under which the crackdown is being carried out, came into effect on which date?
(a) January 1, 2025
(b) July 1, 2025
(c) October 1, 2025
(d) January 16, 2026
Answer: October 1, 2025
Explanation: The Online Gaming Act came into force on October 1, 2025, to regulate online gaming and curb illegal betting activities.

Q3. According to reports, approximately how many illegal betting and gambling platforms have been blocked so far in total?
(a) About 2,500
(b) About 5,000
(c) About 6,500
(d) Over 7,800
Answer: Over 7,800
Explanation: Cumulatively, more than 7,800 illegal online betting and gambling platforms have been blocked as part of the ongoing enforcement drive.

Q4. Under the Online Gaming Act, which of the following groups is the primary target of enforcement action?
(a) Individual players
(b) School students
(c) Service providers and promoters
(d) Internet users in general
Answer: Service providers and promoters
Explanation: The law focuses on platforms, service providers, advertisers, promoters, and financiers, not on individual players.

Q5. One major objective of the Centre’s crackdown on illegal online betting is to protect users from which of the following risks?
(a) Internet slowdown
(b) Data misuse and financial fraud
(c) Online education scams
(d) Software piracy
Answer: Data misuse and financial fraud
Explanation: The crackdown aims to protect users, especially young people, from addiction, financial losses, and misuse of personal data linked to illegal gambling platforms.

India Becomes World’s Second-Largest 5G Subscriber Base

Q1. India has become the world’s second-largest 5G subscriber base, after which country?
(a) United States
(b) South Korea
(c) Japan
(d) China
Answer: China
Explanation: India ranks second globally in terms of 5G subscribers, with China holding the top position.

Q2. Who announced that India has crossed over 400 million 5G users?
(a) Ashwini Vaishnaw
(b) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(c) Nitin Gadkari
(d) Piyush Goyal
Answer: Jyotiraditya Scindia
Explanation: Union Minister of Communications Jyotiraditya Scindia announced that India has surpassed 400 million 5G subscribers.

Q3. Since its launch, 5G services in India now cover approximately what percentage of districts?
(a) 75%
(b) 85%
(c) 95%
(d) 99.6%
Answer: 99.6%
Explanation: Official data shows that 5G services now cover about 99.6 per cent of districts across India.

Q4. Approximately how many 5G Base Transceiver Stations (BTSs) have been installed in India so far?
(a) About 2.5 lakh
(b) About 3.8 lakh
(c) About 4.69 lakh
(d) About 6 lakh
Answer: About 4.69 lakh
Explanation: Telecom Service Providers have installed nearly 4.69 lakh 5G BTSs, making India one of the fastest 5G deployers globally.

Q5. Which of the following statements is correct regarding India’s indigenous telecom technology development?
(a) India has developed an indigenous 5G stack only
(b) India is the first country to develop a 6G stack
(c) India developed an indigenous 4G stack upgradable to 5G
(d) India depends fully on imported telecom technology
Answer: India developed an indigenous 4G stack upgradable to 5G
Explanation: Under the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision, India became the fifth country globally to develop its own indigenous 4G technology stack, which can be upgraded to 5G.

Scientists Develop Breakthrough Method to Produce Tagatose, a Low-Calorie Natural Sugar

Q1. What is tagatose best described as?
(a) An artificial sweetener with zero calories
(b) A synthetic sugar alcohol
(c) A rare natural sugar with low calorie content
(d) A chemical sugar substitute
Answer: A rare natural sugar with low calorie content
Explanation: Tagatose is a naturally occurring rare sugar found in small amounts in fruits and dairy products and contains only about one-third of the calories of regular sugar.

Q2. Which of the following is a key health benefit of tagatose compared to regular sugar?
(a) It increases insulin secretion rapidly
(b) It has a high glycaemic index
(c) It causes sharp blood glucose spikes
(d) It has minimal impact on insulin and blood glucose levels
Answer: It has minimal impact on insulin and blood glucose levels
Explanation: Unlike sucrose, tagatose does not cause sharp rises in blood glucose, making it suitable for people with diabetes or insulin resistance.

Q3. Researchers from which institution led the development of the new large-scale tagatose production method?
(a) Harvard University
(b) Stanford University
(c) Tufts University
(d) MIT
Answer: Tufts University
Explanation: The breakthrough method was developed by researchers from Tufts University in collaboration with biotechnology firms Manus Bio and Kcat Enzymatic.

Q4. Which organism was genetically engineered to produce tagatose efficiently?
(a) Yeast
(b) Algae
(c) Bacillus subtilis
(d) Escherichia coli
Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation: Scientists engineered E. coli bacteria to act as sugar-producing units, achieving production yields of up to 95 per cent.

Q5. The research on large-scale production of tagatose was published in which journal?
(a) Nature Biotechnology
(b) Science Advances
(c) Cell Reports Physical Science
(d) The Lancet
Answer: Cell Reports Physical Science
Explanation: The findings of the study were published in Cell Reports Physical Science, highlighting its scientific significance.

Ponduru Khadi from Andhra Pradesh Gets Geographical Indication (GI) Tag

Q1. Ponduru Khadi, which recently received the GI tag, originates from which district of Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Visakhapatnam
(b) Krishna
(c) Srikakulam
(d) East Godavari
Answer: Srikakulam
Explanation: Ponduru Khadi is produced exclusively in Ponduru village of Srikakulam district in Andhra Pradesh.

Q2. The Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Ponduru Khadi has been registered in favour of which organisation?
(a) Ministry of Textiles
(b) Handloom Development Corporation
(c) Andhra Pradesh Khadi Board
(d) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
Answer: Khadi and Village Industries Commission
Explanation: The GI registration has been awarded in favour of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), which acts as the registered proprietor.

Q3. Ponduru Khadi is locally known by which name?
(a) Pochampally
(b) Patnulu
(c) Venkatagiri
(d) Mangalagiri
Answer: Patnulu
Explanation: Locally, Ponduru Khadi is known as Patnulu, a traditional name used by artisans of the region.

Q4. Which unique traditional tool is used in the preparation of Ponduru Khadi cotton?
(a) Wooden comb
(b) Bamboo roller
(c) Stone grinder
(d) Jawbone of the Valuga fish
Answer: Jawbone of the Valuga fish
Explanation: A distinctive feature of Ponduru Khadi is the use of the jawbone of the Valuga fish for cleaning cotton, a technique unique to this craft.

Q5. Which of the following best describes the significance of the GI tag granted to Ponduru Khadi?
(a) It fixes uniform prices for the fabric
(b) It allows mass machine production
(c) It provides legal protection and authenticity
(d) It replaces handloom certification
Answer: It provides legal protection and authenticity
Explanation: The GI tag protects Ponduru Khadi from imitation, certifies its geographical origin, and helps improve market access for artisans.

Amit Shah Inaugurates Third International Kite Festival in New Delhi

Q1. Who inaugurated the third International Kite Festival at Baansera Park in New Delhi?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Amit Shah
(c) Arvind Kejriwal
(d) Jyotiraditya Scindia
Answer: Amit Shah
Explanation: Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the third International Kite Festival at Baansera Park in New Delhi.

Q2. Amit Shah urged which authority to help develop Delhi as the national hub for kite festivals?
(a) Municipal Corporation of Delhi
(b) Archaeological Survey of India
(c) Delhi Development Authority
(d) Ministry of Culture
Answer: Delhi Development Authority
Explanation: Amit Shah called upon the Delhi Development Authority (DDA), along with the Delhi government, to expand and institutionalise the kite festival.

Q3. Which traditional Indian festival is closely associated with kite flying, as mentioned during the event?
(a) Holi
(b) Diwali
(c) Baisakhi
(d) Uttarayan
Answer: Uttarayan
Explanation: Uttarayan is a traditional kite-flying festival in India and is an important part of the country’s cultural calendar.

Q4. During India’s freedom struggle, kites were famously used to spread which slogan?
(a) Quit India
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Simon Go Back
(d) Swaraj is My Birthright
Answer: Simon Go Back
Explanation: During protests against the Simon Commission, kites carrying the slogan “Simon Go Back” were flown as a symbol of mass resistance.

Q5. Which ancient Indian poet’s phrase “Utsav-priya janah” was quoted to highlight India’s festival-loving culture?
(a) Tulsidas
(b) Kalidasa
(c) Valmiki
(d) Bhasa
Answer: Kalidasa
Explanation: Amit Shah quoted the classical poet Kalidasa’s phrase “Utsav-priya janah” to underline India’s deep cultural connection with festivals.

Supreme Court Clarifies Merit-Based Nature of Unreserved Seats in Public Recruitment

Q1. According to the Supreme Court, unreserved or general category seats in public recruitment are open to whom?
(a) Only general category candidates
(b) Only non-reserved candidates above a cut-off age
(c) All candidates purely on the basis of merit
(d) Only candidates without any social category
Answer: All candidates purely on the basis of merit
Explanation: The Supreme Court clarified that unreserved seats are an open, merit-based pool available to all candidates, irrespective of social category.

Q2. Which constitutional principle would be violated if meritorious reserved category candidates are excluded from unreserved seats?
(a) Federalism
(b) Separation of powers
(c) Equality
(d) Secularism
Answer: Equality
Explanation: The court held that excluding such candidates would violate the principle of equality enshrined in Articles 14 and 16 of the Constitution.

Q3. What is meant by the term “merit-induced shift” as explained by the Supreme Court?
(a) Shifting candidates between states
(b) Adjusting cut-off marks after exams
(c) Counting reserved candidates as open category if they qualify on general standards
(d) Moving candidates from private to public jobs
Answer: Counting reserved candidates as open category if they qualify on general standards
Explanation: If SC, ST, or OBC candidates qualify without availing relaxations, they must be counted against unreserved seats.

Q4. The Supreme Court judgment arose from a recruitment dispute related to which organisation?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Staff Selection Commission
(c) Airports Authority of India
(d) Indian Railways
Answer: Airports Authority of India
Explanation: The case originated from a 2013 recruitment drive by the Airports Authority of India for Junior Assistant (Fire Service) posts.

Q5. Which High Court judgment was set aside by the Supreme Court in this case?
(a) Delhi High Court
(b) Madras High Court
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Kerala High Court
Answer: Kerala High Court
Explanation: The Supreme Court overturned the 2020 Kerala High Court ruling, stating that it was inconsistent with constitutional principles of equality.

Saab Showcases RBS-15 Mk4 Gungnir Missile’s Advanced Strike Capabilities

Q1. Which company showcased the advanced strike capabilities of the RBS-15 missile system?
(a) Lockheed Martin
(b) Boeing
(c) Saab
(d) Raytheon
Answer: Saab
Explanation: Swedish aerospace and defence major Saab demonstrated the advanced capabilities of its RBS-15 missile system through a promotional video.

Q2. The latest version of the RBS-15 missile showcased by Saab is known as which variant?
(a) RBS-15 Mk2
(b) RBS-15 Mk3
(c) RBS-15 Mk4 Gungnir
(d) RBS-17
Answer: RBS-15 Mk4 Gungnir
Explanation: RBS-15 Mk4 Gungnir represents the next-generation variant of the RBS-15 missile family with enhanced range and multi-domain capability.

Q3. From which of the following platforms can the RBS-15 Mk4 Gungnir be launched?
(a) Only naval ships
(b) Only fighter aircraft
(c) Only ground-based launchers
(d) Air, sea, and land platforms
Answer: Air, sea, and land platforms
Explanation: The missile can be launched from fighter aircraft, naval vessels, and ground-based launchers, offering high operational flexibility.

Q4. In the simulated strike scenario, which radar system—part of the S-400 air defence system—was targeted?
(a) 92N6 radar
(b) 96L6 radar
(c) 91N6 surveillance radar
(d) Podlet-K1 radar
Answer: 91N6 surveillance radar
Explanation: The 91N6 radar is a key component of the S-400 system, providing 360-degree coverage and long-range target detection.

Q5. Which fighter aircraft was shown launching the RBS-15 missile in the promotional video?
(a) F-16 Fighting Falcon
(b) Eurofighter Typhoon
(c) Rafale
(d) JAS 39 Gripen
Answer: JAS 39 Gripen
Explanation: The video depicted RBS-15 missiles being launched from Saab’s JAS 39 Gripen fighter aircraft as part of a coordinated strike.

Finke River – The World’s Oldest Surviving River System

Q1. Which river is considered by scientists to be the world’s oldest still-flowing river system?
(a) Nile River
(b) Indus River
(c) Amazon River
(d) Finke River
Answer: Finke River
Explanation: Geological evidence suggests that the Finke River in Australia is the oldest surviving river system on Earth.

Q2. The Finke River is believed to have started flowing approximately how many years ago?
(a) 50–100 million years ago
(b) 150–200 million years ago
(c) 300–400 million years ago
(d) Over 1 billion years ago
Answer: 300–400 million years ago
Explanation: Scientists estimate that the Finke River originated between 300 and 400 million years ago, long before the age of dinosaurs.

Q3. The Finke River cuts directly through which mountain range, proving its great geological age?
(a) Great Dividing Range
(b) Flinders Ranges
(c) Hamersley Range
(d) MacDonnell Ranges
Answer: MacDonnell Ranges
Explanation: The river flows through the MacDonnell Ranges, indicating that it existed before the mountains rose.

Q4. What geological process explains how the Finke River maintained its course despite mountain uplift?
(a) River capture
(b) Meandering
(c) Antecedence
(d) Deposition
Answer: Antecedence
Explanation: Antecedence occurs when a river predates surrounding terrain uplift and continues to erode downward as mountains rise.

Q5. What is the traditional name of the Finke River among the Arrernte people?
(a) Yarra
(b) Larapinta
(c) Murray
(d) Coorong
Answer: Larapinta
Explanation: The Finke River is known as Larapinta among the Arrernte Indigenous people of central Australia.

Tamil Nadu to Host India’s First Full-Stack Sovereign AI Park

Q1. Which state has signed an agreement to establish India’s first full-stack Sovereign Artificial Intelligence Park?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Telangana
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: Tamil Nadu
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu government signed a landmark agreement to set up India’s first full-stack Sovereign AI Park, marking a major state-led AI initiative.

Q2. Which organisation is partnering with the Tamil Nadu government to anchor the technology stack of the Sovereign AI Park?
(a) Infosys
(b) TCS
(c) Sarvam AI
(d) Microsoft India
Answer: Sarvam AI
Explanation: Sarvam AI is the technology partner responsible for anchoring the full-stack AI infrastructure of the Sovereign AI Park.

Q3. What is the initial investment outlay announced for the Sovereign AI Park project?
(a) ₹2,500 crore
(b) ₹5,000 crore
(c) ₹7,500 crore
(d) ₹10,000 crore
Answer: ₹10,000 crore
Explanation: The project has an initial investment of ₹10,000 crore, making it one of India’s most ambitious AI infrastructure initiatives.

Q4. Which key principle is central to the design of the Sovereign AI Park?
(a) Maximum foreign data sharing
(b) Cloud-only AI deployment
(c) Data sovereignty and ethical AI
(d) Automation of private services only
Answer: Data sovereignty and ethical AI
Explanation: The park prioritises keeping data, compute, and AI models within India’s trust boundary, ensuring secure, ethical, and accountable AI systems.

Q5. The Sovereign AI Park aims to support large-scale AI deployment in which of the following sectors?
(a) Defence only
(b) Banking and finance only
(c) Education, agriculture, healthcare, and governance
(d) Space research exclusively
Answer: Education, agriculture, healthcare, and governance
Explanation: The park is designed to enable AI applications across multiple public-facing sectors, including education, agriculture, healthcare, and citizen services.

Karnataka Launches “Gruha Lakshmi Digital Marketing” Portal for Women Entrepreneurs

Q1. Which state government has launched the “Gruha Lakshmi Digital Marketing” portal?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: Karnataka
Explanation: The portal has been launched by the Department of Women and Child Development, Karnataka, to support women entrepreneurs.

Q2. What is the primary objective of the “Gruha Lakshmi Digital Marketing” initiative?
(a) To provide loans to women entrepreneurs
(b) To offer free training in digital skills
(c) To promote products made by women through an online platform
(d) To register self-help groups
Answer: To promote products made by women through an online platform
Explanation: The initiative aims to market and sell products made by women entrepreneurs using a dedicated state-supported digital portal.

Q3. Which department is responsible for launching the Gruha Lakshmi Digital Marketing portal?
(a) Department of Industries and Commerce
(b) Department of IT and BT
(c) Department of Rural Development
(d) Department of Women and Child Development
Answer: Department of Women and Child Development
Explanation: The Department of Women and Child Development, Karnataka, has launched the portal to strengthen women’s economic participation.

Q4. The Gruha Lakshmi Digital Marketing portal mainly seeks to improve which of the following?
(a) Women’s access to healthcare
(b) Women’s digital inclusion and economic independence
(c) Women’s political representation
(d) Women’s access to higher education
Answer: Women’s digital inclusion and economic independence
Explanation: By connecting women-led enterprises to wider markets, the initiative promotes digital inclusion and financial self-reliance.

Q5. Through this portal, women entrepreneurs in Karnataka will be connected to which markets?
(a) Only local village markets
(b) Only state-level markets
(c) National and global markets
(d) Government procurement portals only
Answer: National and global markets
Explanation: The platform is designed to link women entrepreneurs with both national and international markets using digital tools.

Mizoram Government to Procure Ginger and Broomsticks Under Bana Kaih Scheme

Q1. Which state government has announced direct procurement of ginger and dry broomsticks from farmers under the Bana Kaih initiative?
(a) Assam
(b) Tripura
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
Answer: Mizoram
Explanation: The Mizoram government announced that it will directly procure ginger and dry broomsticks from farmers under its flagship Bana Kaih handholding initiative.

Q2. Who announced the start of procurement of ginger and broomsticks under the Bana Kaih scheme?
(a) Zoramthanga
(b) Lalduhoma
(c) Conrad Sangma
(d) Himanta Biswa Sarma
Answer: Lalduhoma
Explanation: Mizoram Chief Minister Lalduhoma made the announcement during the inauguration of a ginger processing unit at Sairang.

Q3. Bana Kaih scheme mainly aims to provide which of the following benefits to farmers?
(a) Free fertilisers and seeds
(b) Loan waivers
(c) Assured prices and market access
(d) Crop insurance only
Answer: Assured prices and market access
Explanation: Under the Bana Kaih scheme, the government procures crops at notified support prices, ensuring assured income and reducing farmers’ dependence on middlemen.

Q4. Mizoram has recently been recognised as the ginger capital of India by which organisation?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) NABARD
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) FCI
Answer: NITI Aayog
Explanation: NITI Aayog officially recognised Mizoram as the ginger capital of India, highlighting the state’s success in ginger cultivation.

Q5. Which of the following crops is NOT covered under the Bana Kaih scheme?
(a) Ginger
(b) Turmeric
(c) Chilli
(d) Sugarcane
Answer: Sugarcane
Explanation: The Bana Kaih scheme covers crops such as ginger, turmeric, chilli, broomsticks and unhusked rice, but not sugarcane.

Praveen Vashista Appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in Central Vigilance Commission

Q1. Who has been appointed as the Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?
(a) Rakesh Asthana
(b) Praveen Vashista
(c) Ajay Kumar Mishra
(d) Alok Verma
Answer: Praveen Vashista
Explanation: The President of India appointed Shri Praveen Vashista as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission.

Q2. Under which legal provision was Praveen Vashista appointed as Vigilance Commissioner?
(a) Article 324 of the Constitution
(b) Section 4(1) of the CVC Act, 2003
(c) Section 3 of the Lokpal Act
(d) Section 6 of the Prevention of Corruption Act
Answer: Section 4(1) of the CVC Act, 2003
Explanation: The appointment was made under Section 4(1) of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

Q3. Before whom did Shri Praveen Vashista take the oath of office?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Central Vigilance Commissioner
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer: Central Vigilance Commissioner
Explanation: He took oath before the Central Vigilance Commissioner, who was authorised by the President under Section 5(3) of the CVC Act.

Q4. Praveen Vashista belongs to which service and cadre?
(a) IAS, Uttar Pradesh cadre
(b) IPS, Bihar cadre
(c) IRS, Rajasthan cadre
(d) IFS, West Bengal cadre
Answer: IPS, Bihar cadre
Explanation: Shri Praveen Vashista is a 1991 batch Indian Police Service officer of the Bihar cadre.

Q5. What is the tenure of a Vigilance Commissioner as per the CVC Act, 2003?
(a) Five years or up to 62 years
(b) Six years or up to 60 years
(c) Four years or up to 65 years
(d) Three years or up to 70 years
Answer: Four years or up to 65 years
Explanation: A Vigilance Commissioner holds office for four years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, ensuring independence of the institution.

Indelible Ink and Its Role in Ensuring Free and Fair Elections in India

Q1. What is the main purpose of applying indelible ink on a voter’s finger during elections?
(a) To identify the voter’s constituency
(b) To mark voter turnout
(c) To prevent multiple voting
(d) To verify voter identity documents
Answer: To prevent multiple voting
Explanation: Indelible ink is applied after voting to indicate that a person has already cast a vote, preventing impersonation and repeat voting.

Q2. Since which year has indelible ink been used in Indian elections?
(a) 1952
(b) 1957
(c) 1962
(d) 1971
Answer: 1962
Explanation: The Election Commission of India introduced indelible ink during the 1962 general elections to curb electoral malpractice.

Q3. Which chemical is responsible for the long-lasting stain of indelible ink?
(a) Potassium permanganate
(b) Silver nitrate
(c) Copper sulphate
(d) Iodine
Answer: Silver nitrate
Explanation: Silver nitrate reacts with the skin and light, creating a dark stain that fades only as the skin naturally wears off.

Q4. Which organisation exclusively manufactures indelible ink for Indian elections?
(a) National Physical Laboratory
(b) Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India
(c) Mysore Paints and Varnish Ltd
(d) Indian Government Mint
Answer: Mysore Paints and Varnish Ltd
Explanation: Mysore Paints and Varnish Ltd, a Karnataka government undertaking, is the sole manufacturer of indelible ink for elections in India.

Q5. The recent controversy regarding indelible ink came to light during which elections?
(a) Lok Sabha elections
(b) Assembly elections
(c) Panchayat elections
(d) Maharashtra municipal corporation elections
Answer: Maharashtra municipal corporation elections
Explanation: During municipal polls in Maharashtra, concerns were raised after videos showed ink marks allegedly being removed easily, triggering political debate.

Spituk Gustor – Annual Monastic Festival of Spituk Monastery in Ladakh

Q1. Spituk Gustor is an annual monastic festival held in which Union Territory of India?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Ladakh
Answer: Ladakh
Explanation: Spituk Gustor is celebrated at Spituk Monastery near Leh in the Union Territory of Ladakh.

Q2. Spituk Gustor is primarily associated with which religious tradition?
(a) Hinduism
(b) Jainism
(c) Tibetan Buddhism
(d) Sikhism
Answer: Tibetan Buddhism
Explanation: The festival is rooted in Tibetan Buddhist traditions and involves prayers, rituals and masked dances performed by monks.

Q3. What is the main symbolic theme of the Cham dances performed during Spituk Gustor?
(a) Change of seasons
(b) Worship of ancestors
(c) Victory of good over evil
(d) Celebration of harvest
Answer: Victory of good over evil
Explanation: Cham dances symbolise the triumph of virtue over evil forces, a key concept in Tibetan Buddhist rituals.

Q4. Spituk Gustor is considered the ______ monastic festival of Ladakh in the annual calendar.
(a) Last
(b) Second
(c) First
(d) Largest
Answer: First
Explanation: According to Akashvani reports, Spituk Gustor is the first monastic festival of Ladakh each year.

Q5. Approximately how many monastic festivals are observed annually in Ladakh?
(a) About 8
(b) About 12
(c) About 16
(d) About 25
Answer: About 16
Explanation: Ladakh observes around 16 monastic festivals every year, reflecting its rich Buddhist cultural and spiritual heritage.

Tropical Storm Nokaen (Ada) and Lahar Risk Near Mayon Volcano, Philippines

Q1. What is the local name given to Tropical Storm Nokaen in the Philippines?
(a) Bising
(b) Odette
(c) Ada
(d) Paeng
Answer: Ada
Explanation: Tropical Storm Nokaen is locally named Ada by Philippine authorities.

Q2. Which natural hazard is feared to be triggered by heavy rainfall from Tropical Storm Nokaen near Mayon Volcano?
(a) Tsunami
(b) Landslides
(c) Lahars
(d) Earthquakes
Answer: Lahars
Explanation: Heavy rainfall over loose volcanic material can generate lahars, which are dangerous mudflows composed of water and volcanic debris.

Q3. Mayon Volcano, which is threatened by lahar formation, is located in which province of the Philippines?
(a) Cebu
(b) Albay
(c) Samar
(d) Palawan
Answer: Albay
Explanation: Mayon Volcano is situated in Albay province on Luzon island and is one of the most active volcanoes in the Philippines.

Q4. Which agency issued warnings about possible lahars due to Tropical Storm Nokaen?
(a) PAGASA
(b) DENR
(c) Phivolcs
(d) Philippine Coast Guard
Answer: Phivolcs
Explanation: The Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology (Phivolcs) warned that intense rainfall could trigger dangerous lahars around Mayon Volcano.

Q5. PAGASA, mentioned in the news, is the official agency responsible for which function in the Philippines?
(a) Disaster management
(b) Volcanic monitoring
(c) Weather forecasting
(d) Coastal security
Answer: Weather forecasting
Explanation: PAGASA is the official weather forecasting and tropical cyclone monitoring agency of the Philippines.

Woolly Rhinoceros Genome Recovered from Ice Age Wolf Puppy in Siberia

Q1. From where was the complete genome of the woolly rhinoceros recovered in this study?
(a) Frozen bone marrow
(b) Permafrost soil samples
(c) Undigested stomach contents of a wolf puppy
(d) Ancient cave paintings
Answer: Undigested stomach contents of a wolf puppy
Explanation: Scientists recovered DNA from undigested rhinoceros meat found in the stomach of a mummified Ice Age wolf puppy preserved in permafrost.

Q2. The remains of the wolf puppy were discovered near which location?
(a) Yakutsk
(b) Lake Baikal
(c) Tumat village
(d) Novosibirsk
Answer: Tumat village
Explanation: The wolf puppy was found preserved in permafrost near the village of Tumat in northeastern Siberia.

Q3. What did genetic analysis reveal about the woolly rhinoceros population before its extinction?
(a) Severe inbreeding over thousands of years
(b) Gradual population decline
(c) Genetic health until near extinction
(d) Heavy impact of human hunting
Answer: Genetic health until near extinction
Explanation: Genome comparisons showed that woolly rhinoceroses remained genetically healthy until shortly before extinction, indicating a rapid collapse.

Q4. What is considered the most likely cause of the woolly rhinoceros’ extinction?
(a) Overhunting by early humans
(b) Volcanic eruptions
(c) Rapid climate warming
(d) Spread of infectious disease
Answer: Rapid climate warming
Explanation: Abrupt warming around 14,000 years ago led to the loss of steppe-tundra habitat, which the woolly rhinoceros depended on for survival.

Q5. What is the scientific name of the woolly rhinoceros?
(a) Rhinoceros unicornis
(b) Elasmotherium sibiricum
(c) Coelodonta antiquitatis
(d) Dicerorhinus sumatrensis
Answer: Coelodonta antiquitatis
Explanation: Coelodonta antiquitatis is the scientific name of the woolly rhinoceros, an Ice Age herbivore that went extinct around 14,000 years ago.

EU Leaders to be Chief Guests at India’s 77th Republic Day & 16th India–EU Summit

Q1. Who will be the Chief Guests at India’s 77th Republic Day celebrations?
(a) Emmanuel Macron and Olaf Scholz
(b) Ursula von der Leyen and Antonio Costa
(c) Charles Michel and Josep Borrell
(d) Roberta Metsola and Ursula von der Leyen
Answer: Ursula von der Leyen and Antonio Costa
Explanation: European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen and European Council President Antonio Luís Santos da Costa will attend as Chief Guests at India’s 77th Republic Day.

Q2. The 16th India–EU Summit is scheduled to be held on which date?
(a) January 25, 2026
(b) January 26, 2026
(c) January 27, 2026
(d) January 28, 2026
Answer: January 27, 2026
Explanation: As confirmed by the Ministry of External Affairs, the 16th India–EU Summit will be held in New Delhi on January 27, 2026.

Q3. India and the European Union became strategic partners in which year?
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2004
(d) 2008
Answer: 2004
Explanation: India and the European Union established a Strategic Partnership in 2004 to enhance cooperation across political, economic and global issues.

Q4. Which two EU institutions are represented by the visiting leaders?
(a) European Parliament and European Central Bank
(b) European Council and European Commission
(c) European Court of Justice and European Council
(d) European Investment Bank and European Parliament
Answer: European Council and European Commission
Explanation: Antonio Costa is the President of the European Council, while Ursula von der Leyen is the President of the European Commission.

Q5. The 15th India–EU Summit was held in which mode and year?
(a) Physical, 2018
(b) Physical, 2019
(c) Virtual, 2020
(d) Virtual, 2021
Answer: Virtual, 2020
Explanation: The 15th India–EU Summit was held virtually on July 15, 2020, reflecting continued engagement despite global disruptions.

CSIR Integrated Skill Initiative to Strengthen India’s Skilled Workforce

Q1. Which organisation is implementing the CSIR Integrated Skill Initiative?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) National Skill Development Corporation
(c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
(d) Ministry of Education
Answer: Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
Explanation: The CSIR Integrated Skill Initiative is implemented by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) by leveraging its nationwide laboratory and research infrastructure.

Q2. The CSIR Integrated Skill Initiative is aligned with which national missions?
(a) Digital India and Make in India
(b) Skill India and Atmanirbhar Bharat
(c) Startup India and Stand-Up India
(d) Swachh Bharat and AMRUT
Answer: Skill India and Atmanirbhar Bharat
Explanation: The initiative supports Skill India and Atmanirbhar Bharat by linking skill development with science, technology and self-reliance.

Q3. Which of the following groups is included as beneficiaries under the CSIR Integrated Skill Initiative?
(a) Only engineering students
(b) Only working professionals
(c) Students, researchers, farmers and rural communities
(d) Only government employees
Answer: Students, researchers, farmers and rural communities
Explanation: The programme provides inclusive access to students, young researchers, technical staff, working professionals, ITI holders, farmers and rural communities.

Q4. The CSIR Integrated Skill Initiative currently covers how many key sectoral skills under the National Skill Development Mission?
(a) 12 out of 30
(b) 15 out of 40
(c) 18 out of 36
(d) 20 out of 50
Answer: 18 out of 36
Explanation: The initiative covers 18 of the 36 key sectoral skills identified under the National Skill Development Mission.

Q5. Who launched Phase III of the CSIR Integrated Skill Initiative in June 2025?
(a) Amitabh Kant
(b) Ajay Kumar Sood
(c) N Kalaiselvi
(d) Renu Swarup
Answer: N Kalaiselvi
Explanation: Phase III of the initiative was launched by N Kalaiselvi, Director General of CSIR and Secretary, DSIR, to further expand skill training across CSIR laboratories.

Jharkhand Notifies PESA Rules to Strengthen Tribal Self-Governance

Q1. Jharkhand has notified rules under which Act to extend self-governance in Scheduled Areas?
(a) Forest Rights Act, 2006
(b) Panchayati Raj Act, 1992
(c) Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
(d) Tribal Sub Plan Act
Answer: Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
Explanation: PESA, enacted in 1996, extends grassroots self-governance to Fifth Schedule Areas with the Gram Sabha as the core institution.

Q2. Under which constitutional provision are Fifth Schedule Areas covered in India?
(a) Article 243
(b) Article 244
(c) Article 245
(d) Article 275
Answer: Article 244
Explanation: Fifth Schedule Areas, to which PESA applies, are governed under Article 244 of the Indian Constitution.

Q3. Which institution is recognised as the supreme authority in Scheduled Areas under the newly notified PESA rules in Jharkhand?
(a) Zila Parishad
(b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) District Collector
(d) Gram Sabha
Answer: Gram Sabha
Explanation: The rules designate the Gram Sabha as the supreme institution, empowering it to manage community resources and local governance.

Q4. In how many districts of Jharkhand are the PESA rules fully applicable?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer: 13
Explanation: The PESA rules apply fully in 13 of Jharkhand’s 24 districts, including Ranchi, Khunti and West Singhbhum.

Q5. What is the maximum fine that a Gram Sabha can impose under the notified PESA rules in Jharkhand?
(a) Rs 1,000
(b) Rs 1,500
(c) Rs 2,000
(d) Rs 5,000
Answer: Rs 2,000
Explanation: Under the new rules, Gram Sabhas are empowered to resolve disputes and impose fines up to Rs 2,000.

Odisha Launches ‘Aame Padhiba Aama Bhasare’ Scheme and Child Welfare Initiatives

Q1. Which state government launched the education scheme ‘Aame Padhiba Aama Bhasare’?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Odisha
(d) West Bengal
Answer: Odisha
Explanation: The Odisha government launched the ‘Aame Padhiba Aama Bhasare’ scheme to strengthen early childhood education and promote women and child welfare.

Q2. The scheme ‘Aame Padhiba Aama Bhasare’ focuses on providing education to children of which age group?
(a) 0–3 years
(b) 3–6 years
(c) 6–10 years
(d) 10–14 years
Answer: 3–6 years
Explanation: The scheme targets early childhood education for children aged 3–6 years, imparted in their mother tongue.

Q3. ‘Aame Padhiba Aama Bhasare’ is aligned with which national policy?
(a) Right to Education Act, 2009
(b) National Education Policy, 2016
(c) National Education Policy, 2020
(d) National Child Policy, 2013
Answer: National Education Policy, 2020
Explanation: The initiative aligns with NEP 2020, which emphasises early learning in the child’s mother tongue.

Q4. In the first phase, the scheme will be implemented in how many tribal languages?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Eight
Answer: Six
Explanation: The scheme will initially cover six tribal languages—Munda, Kui, Saura, Kuvi, Gondi and Koya.

Q5. Along with the education scheme, what duration campaign has Odisha launched to prevent child marriage?
(a) 60 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 100 days
(d) 180 days
Answer: 100 days
Explanation: The Odisha government has launched a 100-day campaign to prevent child marriage, alongside a pilot project addressing teenage pregnancy.

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