15 January 2026 Current Affairs

15 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Indian Railways Introduces OTP-Based Ticketing System to Prevent Fake Bookings

Q1. What is the main objective of the OTP-based ticketing system launched by Indian Railways?
(a) To increase ticket prices
(b) To speed up train services
(c) To strengthen passenger identity verification
(d) To reduce train stoppages
Answer: To strengthen passenger identity verification
Explanation: The OTP-based ticketing system aims to verify passenger identity, enhance transparency, and curb illegal and fake booking practices.

Q2. From which date did the OTP-based ticketing system become operational?
(a) January 1
(b) January 5
(c) January 10
(d) January 12
Answer: January 12
Explanation: The OTP-based verification system came into operation on January 12 as part of Indian Railways’ digital security measures.

Q3. Currently, the OTP-based ticketing system covers how many major trains across India?
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 500
Answer: 300
Explanation: In the first phase, the OTP-based system has been implemented across 300 major trains nationwide.

Q4. OTP verification under the new system is mandatory for which type of ticket bookings?
(a) Only online bookings
(b) Only counter-based bookings
(c) Only premium train bookings
(d) Both online and counter-based bookings
Answer: Both online and counter-based bookings
Explanation: Indian Railways has made OTP verification compulsory for both online ticket booking and counter ticket purchases to ensure uniform identity checks.

Q5. Which of the following premium trains are included in the initial rollout of the OTP-based system?
(a) Tejas and Vande Bharat
(b) Rajdhani, Shatabdi, and Duronto
(c) Garib Rath and Jan Shatabdi
(d) Humsafar and Antyodaya
Answer: Rajdhani, Shatabdi, and Duronto
Explanation: The OTP-based ticketing system has been rolled out on premium services such as Rajdhani, Shatabdi, and Duronto Express trains in the first phase.

Toby Kiers Wins Tyler Prize for Revealing the Climate Role of Underground Fungal Networks

Q1. Who has been awarded the Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement for research on underground fungal networks?
(a) Jane Goodall
(b) Sylvia Earle
(c) Toby Kiers
(d) Rachel Carson
Answer: Toby Kiers
Explanation: American evolutionary biologist Toby Kiers received the Tyler Prize for transforming scientific understanding of mycorrhizal fungi and their role in regulating Earth’s climate.

Q2. Mycorrhizal fungi primarily help plants by exchanging which of the following resources?
(a) Oxygen for carbon dioxide
(b) Water for minerals
(c) Carbon-rich sugars for nutrients
(d) Proteins for enzymes
Answer: Carbon-rich sugars for nutrients
Explanation: Plants provide fungi with carbon-rich sugars and fats, while fungi supply essential nutrients such as phosphorus and nitrogen through underground networks.

Q3. Approximately how much carbon dioxide is drawn down each year by mycorrhizal fungal networks?
(a) 3 billion tonnes
(b) 7 billion tonnes
(c) 10 billion tonnes
(d) Over 13 billion tonnes
Answer: Over 13 billion tonnes
Explanation: These underground fungal networks collectively absorb more than 13 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide annually, making them major natural climate regulators.

Q4. Which structure is the main site of nutrient exchange between fungi and plant roots?
(a) Hyphae
(b) Spores
(c) Arbuscules
(d) Mycelium knots
Answer: Arbuscules
Explanation: Arbuscules are tree-like fungal structures formed inside plant roots where the exchange of nutrients and carbon takes place.

Q5. What was a key finding of Toby Kiers’ 2011 research on fungi?
(a) Fungi depend entirely on plants for survival
(b) Fungi act as passive soil organisms
(c) Fungi behave like traders responding to supply and demand
(d) Fungi only function in forest ecosystems
Answer: Fungi behave like traders responding to supply and demand
Explanation: Kiers showed that fungi actively move nutrients and negotiate carbon returns with plants, behaving like participants in a biological marketplace.

Delhi Government Launches 81 New Ayushman Arogya Mandirs to Strengthen Primary Healthcare

Q1. How many new Ayushman Arogya Mandirs were recently inaugurated by the Delhi government?
(a) 51
(b) 61
(c) 71
(d) 81
Answer: 81
Explanation: The Delhi government launched 81 new Ayushman Arogya Mandirs to expand neighbourhood-level primary healthcare services.

Q2. With the addition of new centres, what is the total number of Ayushman Arogya Mandirs in Delhi?
(a) 250
(b) 289
(c) 319
(d) 350
Answer: 319
Explanation: After the inauguration of 81 new centres, the total number of Ayushman Arogya Mandirs in Delhi has increased to 319.

Q3. The newly inaugurated Ayushman Arogya Mandirs are located in which Assembly constituency?
(a) Janakpuri
(b) Bawana
(c) Sonia Vihar
(d) Hari Nagar
Answer: Hari Nagar
Explanation: All 81 new Ayushman Arogya Mandirs have been inaugurated in the Hari Nagar Assembly constituency.

Q4. Ayushman Arogya Mandirs primarily function as which of the following under Ayushman Bharat?
(a) District Hospitals
(b) Medical Colleges
(c) Health and Wellness Centres
(d) Super Specialty Clinics
Answer: Health and Wellness Centres
Explanation: Ayushman Arogya Mandirs act as Health and Wellness Centres, focusing on preventive, promotive, and basic curative healthcare.

Q5. The Delhi government has increased the annual income limit for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) to avail benefits under welfare schemes to:
(a) ₹3 lakh
(b) ₹4 lakh
(c) ₹5 lakh
(d) ₹6 lakh
Answer: ₹5 lakh
Explanation: The income eligibility limit for EWS beneficiaries has been raised from ₹2.5 lakh to ₹5 lakh annually, expanding healthcare access.

World Bank Raises India’s GDP Growth Forecast for FY 2025–26

Q1. What GDP growth rate has the World Bank projected for India in the fiscal year 2025–26?
(a) 6.3%
(b) 6.8%
(c) 7.0%
(d) 7.2%
Answer: 7.2%
Explanation: The World Bank revised India’s GDP growth outlook upward to 7.2% for FY 2025–26, citing strong domestic demand and supportive economic factors.

Q2. In which report did the World Bank release its revised growth projections for India?
(a) World Development Report
(b) Global Financial Stability Report
(c) Global Economic Prospects
(d) Doing Business Report
Answer: Global Economic Prospects
Explanation: The revised projections were published in the World Bank’s flagship “Global Economic Prospects” report, released twice a year.

Q3. By how many percentage points did the World Bank raise India’s growth forecast from its June estimate?
(a) 0.5 percentage points
(b) 0.7 percentage points
(c) 0.9 percentage points
(d) 1.2 percentage points
Answer: 0.9 percentage points
Explanation: The forecast was raised from 6.3% in June to 7.2%, reflecting a 0.9 percentage point upward revision.

Q4. According to the World Bank, which factor is the main driver of India’s current economic momentum?
(a) Defence exports
(b) Domestic demand
(c) Foreign direct investment
(d) Tourism growth
Answer: Domestic demand
Explanation: The report highlighted robust domestic demand, including strong private consumption and improved rural incomes, as the key driver of growth.

Q5. Which country currently accounts for about 12 per cent of India’s merchandise exports, as noted in the report?
(a) China
(b) United Kingdom
(c) United States
(d) Germany
Answer: United States
Explanation: The World Bank noted that the US accounts for around 12% of India’s merchandise exports, even as higher import tariffs remain in place.

Chadar Trek on Frozen Zanskar River Deferred Due to Inadequate Ice Formation

Q1. Why has the iconic Chadar trek in Ladakh been deferred this year?
(a) Heavy snowfall along the route
(b) Security concerns in the region
(c) Insufficient freezing of the Zanskar River
(d) Lack of tourist participation
Answer: Insufficient freezing of the Zanskar River
Explanation: Authorities postponed the Chadar trek after inspections revealed that the Zanskar River surface had not frozen thick enough to ensure safe movement.

Q2. The Chadar trek is conducted on which river?
(a) Indus River
(b) Shyok River
(c) Nubra River
(d) Zanskar River
Answer: Zanskar River
Explanation: The Chadar trek is a winter trek carried out on the frozen surface of the Zanskar River in Ladakh.

Q3. Who informed about the safety assessment leading to the postponement of the trek?
(a) Ladakh Lieutenant Governor
(b) President of All Ladakh Hotel Association
(c) Additional Deputy Commissioner of Leh
(d) Director of Tourism, Ladakh
Answer: Additional Deputy Commissioner of Leh
Explanation: Additional Deputy Commissioner of Leh, Ghulam Mohammad, stated that inspections found inadequate ice thickness along key stretches of the trek route.

Q4. Which force will be additionally deployed along the Chadar trek route for rescue preparedness?
(a) Border Security Force
(b) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(c) Central Reserve Police Force
(d) National Disaster Response Force
Answer: National Disaster Response Force
Explanation: The district administration decided to deploy additional NDRF personnel to strengthen rescue and emergency response due to unstable ice conditions.

Q5. Which major factor has been cited as affecting ice formation and the regular conduct of the Chadar trek in recent years?
(a) Increase in tourist footfall
(b) Construction of new hotels
(c) Climate change and global warming
(d) Wildlife movement in the region
Answer: Climate change and global warming
Explanation: Experts and studies have highlighted that global warming and changing climate patterns are reducing the number of extremely cold days needed for stable ice formation in Ladakh.

US FDA Approves Zycubo as First Treatment for Menkes Disease

Q1. Which drug has been approved by the US FDA for the treatment of paediatric patients with Menkes disease?
(a) Zolgensma
(b) Spinraza
(c) Zycubo
(d) Cupramin
Answer: Zycubo
Explanation: The US Food and Drug Administration approved Zycubo (copper histidinate) as the first and only authorised therapy for Menkes disease in the United States.

Q2. Zycubo is primarily used to treat which type of disorder?
(a) Autoimmune disorder
(b) Metabolic disorder related to iron
(c) Neurodegenerative disorder related to copper metabolism
(d) Infectious genetic disorder
Answer: Neurodegenerative disorder related to copper metabolism
Explanation: Menkes disease is a rare neurodegenerative genetic disorder caused by defective copper absorption and distribution in the body.

Q3. Zycubo has been developed by Sentynl Therapeutics Inc, which is wholly owned by which Indian pharmaceutical company?
(a) Sun Pharma
(b) Dr Reddy’s Laboratories
(c) Cipla
(d) Zydus Lifesciences
Answer: Zydus Lifesciences
Explanation: Sentynl Therapeutics, the developer of Zycubo, is a wholly owned subsidiary of Zydus Lifesciences.

Q4. Which of the following special regulatory designations was NOT granted to Zycubo by the US FDA during its development?
(a) Breakthrough therapy
(b) Fast track
(c) Orphan drug
(d) Priority review voucher
Answer: Priority review voucher
Explanation: Zycubo received breakthrough therapy, fast track, rare paediatric disease, and orphan drug designations, but not a priority review voucher.

Q5. How is Zycubo administered to patients with Menkes disease?
(a) Oral tablets
(b) Intravenous infusion
(c) Intramuscular injection
(d) Subcutaneous injection
Answer: Subcutaneous injection
Explanation: Zycubo works as a copper replacement therapy and is administered through subcutaneous injection to address copper deficiency in affected children.

Astronomers Discover Multicoloured Shockwave from a Magnetised White Dwarf

Q1. What type of stellar object is responsible for the multicoloured shockwave observed by astronomers?
(a) Neutron star
(b) Black hole
(c) White dwarf
(d) Brown dwarf
Answer: White dwarf
Explanation: The phenomenon was caused by a highly magnetised white dwarf, which is the final evolutionary stage of stars up to about eight times the Sun’s mass.

Q2. The unusual white dwarf system is located in which constellation?
(a) Orion
(b) Andromeda
(c) Cygnus
(d) Auriga
Answer: Auriga
Explanation: The binary system lies about 730 light-years from Earth in the constellation Auriga within the Milky Way galaxy.

Q3. Which telescope was used to detect the colourful bow shock produced by the white dwarf?
(a) Hubble Space Telescope
(b) James Webb Space Telescope
(c) Very Large Telescope
(d) Chandra X-ray Observatory
Answer: Very Large Telescope
Explanation: The bow shock was detected using the Very Large Telescope operated by the European Southern Observatory (ESO) in Chile.

Q4. In the observed bow shock, which element is indicated by blue-coloured light?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Helium
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Oxygen
Answer: Oxygen
Explanation: Blue light in the bow shock corresponds to oxygen, while red indicates hydrogen and green represents nitrogen.

Q5. Why has this white dwarf system puzzled scientists?
(a) It has no companion star
(b) It emits unusually strong X-rays
(c) It produces a shockwave without a surrounding gas disk
(d) It is located outside the Milky Way
Answer: It produces a shockwave without a surrounding gas disk
Explanation: Unlike similar systems studied earlier, this white dwarf lacks a gas disk yet continues to expel material and sustain a bow shock for nearly 1,000 years, challenging existing models.

Indian Olympic Association Launches National Olympic Education Programme and Revives National Olympic Academy

Q1. Which organisation has launched the National Olympic Education and Development Programme (NOEDP)?
(a) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
(b) Sports Authority of India
(c) Indian Olympic Association
(d) International Olympic Committee
Answer: Indian Olympic Association
Explanation: The National Olympic Education and Development Programme was launched by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to strengthen India’s Olympic ecosystem.

Q2. The decisions to launch NOEDP and revive the National Olympic Academy were taken during meetings held in which city?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Ahmedabad
Answer: Ahmedabad
Explanation: The Executive Council meeting and the IOA Annual General Meeting, where these reforms were approved, were both held in Ahmedabad.

Q3. What is the primary objective of the National Olympic Education and Development Programme (NOEDP)?
(a) Hosting international sporting events
(b) Providing financial grants to athletes
(c) Delivering structured Olympic education and athlete development
(d) Selecting Indian teams for the Olympics
Answer: Delivering structured Olympic education and athlete development
Explanation: NOEDP focuses on Olympic values, ethics, professionalism, athlete welfare, and long-term career development across grassroots to elite levels.

Q4. Who has been approved as the President of the reactivated National Olympic Academy?
(a) Gagan Narang
(b) Anurag Thakur
(c) Abhinav Bindra
(d) P. T. Usha
Answer: P. T. Usha
Explanation: The IOA General House approved IOA President P. T. Usha as the President of the National Olympic Academy.

Q5. The National Olympic Academy of India will collaborate closely with which international institution?
(a) World Anti-Doping Agency
(b) International Olympic Committee Headquarters
(c) International Olympic Academy, Olympia
(d) Asian Olympic Council
Answer: International Olympic Academy, Olympia
Explanation: The National Olympic Academy will work with the International Olympic Academy in Olympia to align Indian Olympic education with global standards and the Olympic Charter.

Tripura Gramin Bank Launches India’s First Solar-Powered ATM Van

Q1. Which bank has become the first Gramin Bank in India to introduce a solar-powered ATM van?
(a) Assam Gramin Vikash Bank
(b) Tripura Gramin Bank
(c) Odisha Gramya Bank
(d) Chhattisgarh Rajya Gramin Bank
Answer: Tripura Gramin Bank
Explanation: Tripura Gramin Bank set a national benchmark by becoming the first Gramin Bank to launch a solar-powered ATM van in India.

Q2. The solar-powered ATM van initiative of Tripura Gramin Bank received which national-level award?
(a) National Banking Award
(b) Digital India Award
(c) SKOCH Group Silver Award
(d) India Innovation Award
Answer: SKOCH Group Silver Award
Explanation: The initiative was recognised with the SKOCH Group Silver Award for excellence in governance, innovation, and public service delivery.

Q3. Who inaugurated the solar-powered ATM van initiative of Tripura Gramin Bank?
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Tripura Chief Minister
(c) RBI Governor
(d) Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
Answer: Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
Explanation: The initiative was inaugurated on July 21, 2023, by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman during her visit to Tripura.

Q4. Gramin Banks in India are also known as which of the following?
(a) Cooperative Banks
(b) Small Finance Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Payment Banks
Answer: Regional Rural Banks
Explanation: Gramin Banks are officially known as Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and focus on financial inclusion in rural areas.

Q5. What is the main advantage of solar-powered ATM vans in rural banking?
(a) Higher transaction charges
(b) Reduced staffing requirement
(c) Operation in areas with unreliable electricity
(d) Faster loan approvals
Answer: Operation in areas with unreliable electricity
Explanation: Solar-powered ATM vans enable uninterrupted banking services in remote and off-grid areas, supporting sustainable and inclusive financial access.

India’s Passport Ranking Improves in Henley Passport Index 2026

Q1. What is India’s rank in the Henley Passport Index 2026?
(a) 75
(b) 78
(c) 80
(d) 85
Answer: 80
Explanation: In the Henley Passport Index 2026, India climbed five places to rank 80th, showing a modest recovery in global passport strength.

Q2. How many destinations can Indian passport holders access visa-free or with visa-on-arrival in 2026?
(a) 48
(b) 52
(c) 55
(d) 60
Answer: 55
Explanation: According to the 2026 index, Indian citizens can travel to 55 destinations without a prior visa or by obtaining a visa-on-arrival.

Q3. India shares its 80th rank in the Henley Passport Index 2026 with which countries?
(a) Kenya and Ethiopia
(b) Algeria and Niger
(c) Morocco and Tunisia
(d) Ghana and Nigeria
Answer: Algeria and Niger
Explanation: In the latest rankings, India is placed jointly at 80th position along with Algeria and Niger.

Q4. Which country holds the top position in the Henley Passport Index 2026?
(a) Japan
(b) Germany
(c) Singapore
(d) South Korea
Answer: Singapore
Explanation: Singapore continues to hold the world’s strongest passport, with visa-free access to 192 destinations.

Q5. The Henley Passport Index uses data primarily sourced from which organization?
(a) United Nations
(b) World Bank
(c) International Air Transport Association
(d) World Economic Forum
Answer: International Air Transport Association
Explanation: The Henley Passport Index is based on exclusive data provided by the International Air Transport Association (IATA), making it a reliable source for global mobility rankings.

Meaning of Cold in Physics and Ultracold Quantum Matter

Q1. What is the lowest possible temperature known in physics?
(a) −100°C
(b) −200°C
(c) −273.15°C
(d) 0 Kelvin
Answer: −273.15°C
Explanation: Absolute zero, equal to −273.15°C (0 Kelvin), is the lowest possible temperature where atomic motion reaches its minimum limit.

Q2. Near absolute zero, how do atoms mainly behave?
(a) As rigid solid particles
(b) As fast-moving classical particles
(c) As waves that overlap and interfere
(d) As charged plasma
Answer: As waves that overlap and interfere
Explanation: At ultracold temperatures, atoms no longer behave like classical particles but show wave-like quantum behaviour that can overlap and interfere.

Q3. Which technique is used by physicists to cool atoms to extremely low temperatures?
(a) Freezing with liquid nitrogen
(b) Compression cooling
(c) Laser cooling
(d) Magnetic heating
Answer: Laser cooling
Explanation: Laser cooling uses the momentum of photons to slow down atoms, reducing their motion and temperature to near absolute zero.

Q4. The technique of laser cooling and trapping of atoms was awarded the Nobel Prize in which year?
(a) 1991
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 2001
Answer: 1997
Explanation: The breakthrough development of laser cooling and trapping of atoms earned the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1997.

Q5. A Bose–Einstein Condensate is best described as which of the following?
(a) A hot plasma state
(b) A form of solid matter
(c) A single quantum state where atoms act like a “super-atom”
(d) A chemically bonded molecule
Answer: A single quantum state where atoms act like a “super-atom”
Explanation: In a Bose–Einstein Condensate, atoms collapse into one quantum state and behave collectively, making quantum effects visible on a macroscopic scale.

Responsible Nations Index to be Launched by World Intellectual Foundation

Q1. Which organization is set to launch the Responsible Nations Index?
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World Intellectual Foundation
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: World Intellectual Foundation
Explanation: The Responsible Nations Index is a new global initiative launched by the World Intellectual Foundation to assess national responsibility across multiple dimensions.

Q2. On which date will the Responsible Nations Index be officially launched?
(a) January 10
(b) January 15
(c) January 19
(d) January 26
Answer: January 19
Explanation: The Index is scheduled to be launched on January 19 in New Delhi, marking the formal beginning of this global assessment initiative.

Q3. Which of the following institutions is NOT a collaborator in launching the Responsible Nations Index?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru University
(b) Indian Institute of Management Mumbai
(c) Dr Ambedkar International Centre
(d) Indian Institute of Technology Delhi
Answer: Indian Institute of Technology Delhi
Explanation: The Index is being launched in collaboration with JNU, IIM Mumbai, and the Dr Ambedkar International Centre, not IIT Delhi.

Q4. The Responsible Nations Index evaluates countries based on which three core dimensions?
(a) Economic growth, military strength, population
(b) Internal, environmental, and external responsibility
(c) Political stability, trade, technology
(d) Health, education, and income
Answer: Internal, environmental, and external responsibility
Explanation: The Index measures responsibility through internal governance and citizen welfare, environmental stewardship, and external engagement such as peace and global cooperation.

Q5. How many countries are covered under the Responsible Nations Index?
(a) 120
(b) 140
(c) 154
(d) 180
Answer: 154
Explanation: The Responsible Nations Index covers 154 countries, using transparent and globally sourced data to allow objective comparison across nations.

India’s Missile Capabilities and Army Day 2026

Q1. Why is Army Day celebrated every year on January 15 in India?
(a) To mark the formation of the Indian Army
(b) To commemorate India’s first war victory
(c) To honour the appointment of K. M. Cariappa as the first Indian Commander-in-Chief
(d) To remember the 1971 war
Answer: To honour the appointment of K. M. Cariappa as the first Indian Commander-in-Chief
Explanation: Army Day marks the appointment of Field Marshal K. M. Cariappa as the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army in 1949.

Q2. Which missile forms the backbone of India’s long-range strategic nuclear deterrence?
(a) Agni-III
(b) Agni-5
(c) Prithvi-II
(d) K-15 Sagarika
Answer: Agni-5
Explanation: Agni-5 is an intercontinental ballistic missile with a range of over 5,000 km and plays a key role in India’s strategic deterrence.

Q3. Agni-Prime missile is best described as which of the following?
(a) Short-range surface-to-air missile
(b) Intercontinental ballistic missile
(c) Medium-range ballistic missile with canister launch
(d) Submarine-launched ballistic missile
Answer: Medium-range ballistic missile with canister launch
Explanation: Agni-Prime is a new-generation medium-range ballistic missile (1,000–2,000 km) designed for rapid deployment and enhanced survivability through canisterisation.

Q4. BrahMos missile is known for which key feature?
(a) Hypersonic speed and nuclear-only role
(b) Supersonic speed with land, sea, and air launch capability
(c) Subsonic speed and stealth design
(d) Exclusive submarine launch capability
Answer: Supersonic speed with land, sea, and air launch capability
Explanation: BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India and Russia and can be launched from land, ships, submarines, and aircraft.

Q5. Which missile strengthens India’s sea-based nuclear deterrence by ensuring second-strike capability?
(a) Astra Mk-2
(b) Akash Prime
(c) Nirbhay
(d) K-15 Sagarika
Answer: K-15 Sagarika
Explanation: The K-15 Sagarika is a submarine-launched ballistic missile that supports India’s assured second-strike capability as part of its nuclear triad.

Gujarat’s Karuna Abhiyan to Protect Wildlife During Uttarayan Festival

Q1. Which festival prompted the Gujarat government to intensify wildlife protection measures under Karuna Abhiyan?
(a) Navratri
(b) Diwali
(c) Uttarayan
(d) Janmashtami
Answer: Uttarayan
Explanation: Wildlife protection measures were strengthened ahead of the Uttarayan festival, when kite flying increases the risk of injuries to birds and animals.

Q2. Karuna Abhiyan is an initiative related to which of the following?
(a) Forest fire control
(b) Water conservation
(c) Animal and bird welfare
(d) Coastal protection
Answer: Animal and bird welfare
Explanation: Karuna Abhiyan is a Gujarat government initiative focused on rescuing and treating injured birds and animals, especially during festivals like Uttarayan.

Q3. Who reviewed the emergency preparedness at the Wildlife Care Centre in Ahmedabad?
(a) Narendra Modi and Amit Shah
(b) Bhupendra Patel and Arjun Modhwadia
(c) Vijay Rupani and Pradipsinh Jadeja
(d) Mansukh Mandaviya and Parshottam Rupala
Answer: Bhupendra Patel and Arjun Modhwadia
Explanation: Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel and State Forests and Environment Minister Arjun Modhwadia visited the centre to review medical readiness and response capacity.

Q4. How many veterinarians have been deployed across Gujarat under Karuna Abhiyan for wildlife rescue during Uttarayan?
(a) 528
(b) 628
(c) 728
(d) 828
Answer: 728
Explanation: A total of 728 veterinarians have been mobilised statewide to rescue and treat birds and animals injured by kite strings.

Q5. What is the main purpose of providing a WhatsApp-based information system during Uttarayan?
(a) To register kite-flying events
(b) To report illegal kite sales
(c) To locate nearby bird treatment centres quickly
(d) To issue weather alerts
Answer: To locate nearby bird treatment centres quickly
Explanation: The WhatsApp service helps citizens quickly find nearby treatment centres, reducing response time for rescuing injured wildlife.

National Campaign on Entrepreneurship under DAY–NRLM for Lakhpati Didi Initiative

Q1. The National Campaign on Entrepreneurship has been launched under which scheme?
(a) PM Mudra Yojana
(b) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission
(c) PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana
(d) Stand-Up India
Answer: Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission
Explanation: The campaign has been launched under DAY–NRLM to promote women-led livelihoods and strengthen rural entrepreneurship.

Q2. What is the main objective of the National Campaign on Entrepreneurship under DAY–NRLM?
(a) Expansion of farm subsidies
(b) Promotion of rural tourism
(c) Scaling up non-farm livelihood opportunities for rural women
(d) Digitisation of land records
Answer: Scaling up non-farm livelihood opportunities for rural women
Explanation: The campaign focuses on promoting non-farm enterprises to diversify incomes and reduce dependence on agriculture.

Q3. Under the Lakhpati Didi initiative, a woman SHG member is expected to earn at least how much annually?
(a) ₹50,000
(b) ₹75,000
(c) ₹1 lakh
(d) ₹2 lakh
Answer: ₹1 lakh
Explanation: Lakhpati Didi refers to women self-help group members earning ₹1 lakh or more per year through sustainable livelihoods.

Q4. On which date was the National Campaign on Entrepreneurship launched?
(a) January 5, 2026
(b) January 10, 2026
(c) January 12, 2026
(d) January 15, 2026
Answer: January 12, 2026
Explanation: The campaign was officially launched on January 12, 2026, by the Additional Secretary, Rural Development.

Q5. What is the target number of community resource persons to be trained under this campaign?
(a) 25,000
(b) 40,000
(c) 50,000
(d) 1,00,000
Answer: 50,000
Explanation: The campaign aims to train 50,000 community resource persons to support enterprise promotion and mentoring of rural women entrepreneurs.

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