15-16 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

15-16 February– Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

1959 – Fidel Castro became the Prime Minister of Cuba after the Cuban Revolution.
1923 – British archaeologist Howard Carter opened the sealed burial chamber of Pharaoh Tutankhamun in Egypt.
1941 – Kim Jong-il, former leader of North Korea, was born (official North Korean records state this date).

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15-16 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Northeast’s First Emergency Landing Facility (ELF) Inaugurated at Moran, Assam

Q1. The Northeast’s first Emergency Landing Facility (ELF) was inaugurated at Moran in which state?
(a) Manipur
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: Assam
Explanation: The Emergency Landing Facility was inaugurated at Moran in Dibrugarh district of Assam, marking the first such facility in Northeast India.

Q2. Who inaugurated the Emergency Landing Facility at Moran?
(a) Rajnath Singh
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Amit Shah
(d) Jitendra Singh
Answer: Narendra Modi
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the facility and also made a historic landing at the airstrip.

Q3. What is the primary purpose of an Emergency Landing Facility (ELF)?
(a) Commercial passenger operations
(b) Training of pilots
(c) Emergency landing and take-off of military and select civil aircraft
(d) Cargo warehousing
Answer: Emergency landing and take-off of military and select civil aircraft
Explanation: The ELF is a specially designed highway airstrip built in coordination with the Indian Air Force to enable aircraft operations during emergencies and strategic situations.

Q4. What is the total length of the Moran Emergency Landing Facility?
(a) 3.2 km
(b) 4.2 km
(c) 5.5 km
(d) 6.0 km
Answer: 4.2 km
Explanation: The Moran ELF is 4.2 kilometres long and built at an approximate cost of ₹100 crore, making it capable of handling advanced fighter and transport aircraft.

Q5. The Moran ELF can handle fighter aircraft up to what maximum weight?
(a) 30 tonnes
(b) 35 tonnes
(c) 40 tonnes
(d) 50 tonnes
Answer: 40 tonnes
Explanation: The facility is designed to handle fighter jets weighing up to 40 tonnes and transport aircraft with a maximum take-off weight of 74 tonnes, strengthening India’s defence preparedness in the Northeast region.

Philippine Eagle – Critically Endangered National Bird of the Philippines

Q1. The Philippine eagle (Pithecophaga jefferyi) is endemic to which country?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c) Philippines
(d) Thailand
Answer: Philippines
Explanation: The Philippine eagle is found only in the Philippines and is considered one of the country’s national symbols.

Q2. What is the IUCN Red List status of the Philippine eagle?
(a) Vulnerable
(b) Endangered
(c) Critically Endangered
(d) Near Threatened
Answer: Critically Endangered
Explanation: The species is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, with fewer than 500 mature individuals remaining in the wild.

Q3. The Philippine eagle primarily depends on which type of forest for nesting and hunting?
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Dipterocarp forests
(c) Temperate deciduous forests
(d) Savannah grasslands
Answer: Dipterocarp forests
Explanation: The eagle relies on undisturbed dipterocarp forests, which are dominant in Southeast Asia’s tropical rainforests, for survival and breeding.

Q4. Why is the Philippine eagle nicknamed the “monkey-eating bird”?
(a) It feeds only on monkeys
(b) It hunts monkeys along with other small animals
(c) It resembles a monkey in appearance
(d) It lives near monkey habitats only
Answer: It hunts monkeys along with other small animals
Explanation: Early observations reported the eagle preying on monkeys, though its diet also includes flying squirrels, civets, bats, snakes and other small vertebrates.

Q5. One major reason for the slow population recovery of the Philippine eagle is that it:
(a) Migrates long distances annually
(b) Lays multiple eggs every year
(c) Reaches sexual maturity very early
(d) Lays only one egg every two years
Answer: Lays only one egg every two years
Explanation: The species has a slow breeding cycle, usually laying a single egg every two years and reaching maturity around seven years of age, which limits rapid population growth.

India’s First Underwater Rail-Cum-Road Tunnel Under the Brahmaputra Approved

Q1. India’s first underwater rail-cum-road tunnel will be constructed beneath which river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Godavari
(d) Narmada
Answer: Brahmaputra
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the construction of India’s first underwater rail-cum-road tunnel beneath the Brahmaputra river in Assam.

Q2. The 33.7-km greenfield corridor will connect Gohpur with which place in Assam?
(a) Guwahati
(b) Tezpur
(c) Numaligarh
(d) Silchar
Answer: Numaligarh
Explanation: The project will connect Gohpur (NH-15) with Numaligarh (NH-715), significantly reducing travel distance and time in the region.

Q3. The project will be executed under which mode of implementation?
(a) BOT Mode
(b) PPP Mode
(c) HAM Mode
(d) EPC Mode
Answer: EPC Mode
Explanation: The project will be implemented under the Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC) mode, where a single contractor is responsible for design and construction.

Q4. What is the total estimated cost of the Brahmaputra underwater tunnel project?
(a) ₹12,500 crore
(b) ₹15,000 crore
(c) ₹18,662 crore
(d) ₹20,000 crore
Answer: ₹18,662 crore
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the project at an estimated cost of ₹18,662 crore, making it one of the largest infrastructure projects in the Northeast.

Q5. The Brahmaputra river originates in Tibet by which name?
(a) Mekong
(b) Irrawaddy
(c) Salween
(d) Yarlung Tsangpo
Answer: Yarlung Tsangpo
Explanation: The Brahmaputra originates in Tibet as the Yarlung Tsangpo and later enters India through Arunachal Pradesh, making it a major transboundary river of Asia.

India Releases First Comprehensive Artificial Intelligence Governance Framework

Q1. What approach has India adopted in its Artificial Intelligence governance framework?
(a) A strict standalone AI Act
(b) A military-focused AI regulation model
(c) A principle-based governance model
(d) A complete ban on high-risk AI systems
Answer: A principle-based governance model
Explanation: India has chosen a principle-based approach instead of introducing a separate AI law. The framework is guided by key principles and supported by existing legal provisions.

Q2. How many guiding “sutras” form the foundation of India’s AI governance framework?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight
Answer: Seven
Explanation: The framework is built around seven guiding principles (sutras), focusing on trust, accountability, transparency, fairness, safety, sustainability and a people-first approach.

Q3. Under the new AI guidelines, high-risk AI applications must include which of the following?
(a) Complete automation without supervision
(b) Mandatory human oversight
(c) Foreign regulatory approval
(d) Blockchain verification
Answer: Mandatory human oversight
Explanation: AI systems affecting safety, fundamental rights or livelihoods are classified as high-risk and require enhanced safeguards along with mandatory human supervision.

Q4. Which new institution has been proposed to focus on AI testing standards and risk assessment?
(a) National Cyber Security Agency
(b) AI Safety Institute
(c) Digital India Commission
(d) National Innovation Council
Answer: AI Safety Institute
Explanation: The framework proposes setting up an AI Safety Institute to conduct safety research, testing standards and risk assessments for AI systems.

Q5. India’s AI governance framework aligns with which long-term national vision?
(a) Digital India 2030
(b) Make in India 2035
(c) Viksit Bharat 2047
(d) Startup India 2040
Answer: Viksit Bharat 2047
Explanation: The framework supports the broader national vision of Viksit Bharat 2047, aiming for inclusive, sustainable and innovation-driven development.

Assam Student Wins Veergatha 5.0 Super 100 Title

Q1. A Class IV student from which city won the Veergatha 5.0 Super 100 title?
(a) Shillong
(b) Guwahati
(c) Imphal
(d) Agartala
Answer: Guwahati
Explanation: Ayesha Karim, a student from Guwahati, brought national recognition to Assam by winning the prestigious Veergatha 5.0 Super 100 title.

Q2. Ayesha Karim’s artwork paid tribute to which gallantry awardee of the 2008 Mumbai attacks?
(a) Captain Vikram Batra
(b) Major Sandeep Unnikrishnan
(c) Lieutenant Arun Khetarpal
(d) Colonel Santosh Babu
Answer: Major Sandeep Unnikrishnan
Explanation: Her artwork portrayed the bravery of Sandeep Unnikrishnan, who sacrificed his life during the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks.

Q3. Major Sandeep Unnikrishnan was posthumously awarded which gallantry award?
(a) Param Vir Chakra
(b) Maha Vir Chakra
(c) Ashoka Chakra
(d) Kirti Chakra
Answer: Ashoka Chakra
Explanation: He was honoured with the Ashoka Chakra, India’s highest peacetime gallantry award, for his exceptional courage during the 2008 Mumbai attacks.

Q4. The Veergatha Project is an initiative of which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Education
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Culture
(d) Ministry of Defence
Answer: Ministry of Defence
Explanation: The Veergatha Project is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Defence aimed at inspiring students to learn about India’s gallantry awardees.

Q5. Winners of the Veergatha Super 100 category were invited to witness which national event?
(a) Independence Day Celebration at Red Fort
(b) Republic Day Parade at Kartavya Path
(c) Beating Retreat Ceremony
(d) Armed Forces Flag Day Ceremony
Answer: Republic Day Parade at Kartavya Path
Explanation: Winners were invited to attend the Republic Day Parade held at Kartavya Path on 26 January, one of India’s most important national celebrations.

India to Establish First National Cow Culture Museum in Mathura

Q1. India’s first National Cow Culture Museum will be established in which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Haryana
Answer: Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: The museum will be set up in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh, marking the first such national-level initiative focused on cattle culture and awareness.

Q2. The National Cow Culture Museum will be developed within the campus of which university?
(a) Banaras Hindu University
(b) Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya Veterinary Science University
(c) Aligarh Muslim University
(d) Govind Ballabh Pant University of Agriculture
Answer: Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya Veterinary Science University
Explanation: The museum will be developed inside the campus of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya Veterinary Science University in Mathura.

Q3. The primary objective of the National Cow Culture Museum is to highlight which of the following?
(a) Only religious importance of cows
(b) Only dairy industry profits
(c) Cultural, agricultural and economic significance of cattle
(d) International cattle trade
Answer: Cultural, agricultural and economic significance of cattle
Explanation: The museum aims to present a balanced understanding of cattle, covering cultural traditions, sustainable agriculture, rural economy and scientific aspects of conservation.

Q4. The museum will showcase indigenous cattle breeds along with information about their ______.
(a) Export value only
(b) Habitat and productivity
(c) Genetic modification history
(d) Military usage
Answer: Habitat and productivity
Explanation: Exhibits will provide details about indigenous breeds, including their characteristics, habitat, productivity and conservation status.

Q5. Mathura, the location of the proposed museum, lies in which culturally significant region of India?
(a) Bundelkhand
(b) Malwa
(c) Braj
(d) Marwar
Answer: Braj
Explanation: Mathura is part of the culturally significant Braj region of northern India, known for its historical and cultural heritage.

Passing of Internet Pioneer David J. Farber

Q1. David J. Farber, often called a “grandfather of the internet”, passed away in which year?
(a) 2024
(b) 2025
(c) 2026
(d) 2023
Answer: 2026
Explanation: David J. Farber passed away on 7 February 2026 in Tokyo at the age of 91 due to heart failure.

Q2. David J. Farber began his early research career at which institution?
(a) MIT Media Lab
(b) IBM Research
(c) Bell Laboratories
(d) Stanford Research Institute
Answer: Bell Laboratories
Explanation: Farber started his career in the mid-1950s at Bell Laboratories, where he worked on linking computing systems with telecommunications.

Q3. The Internet Protocol (IP), influenced by Farber’s mentorship, is primarily used for what purpose?
(a) Encrypting emails
(b) Translating websites into code
(c) Governing transmission of data packets across networks
(d) Designing computer hardware
Answer: Governing transmission of data packets across networks
Explanation: Internet Protocol (IP) defines how data packets are transmitted across interconnected networks, forming the backbone of internet communication.

Q4. The Domain Name System (DNS), associated with Farber’s student Paul Mockapetris, performs which function?
(a) Protects computers from viruses
(b) Translates domain names into numerical IP addresses
(c) Stores cloud data
(d) Compresses digital files
Answer: Translates domain names into numerical IP addresses
Explanation: DNS converts user-friendly domain names into numerical IP addresses, allowing browsers to locate and access websites.

Q5. Which university in Japan was David J. Farber associated with since 2018?
(a) University of Tokyo
(b) Kyoto University
(c) Keio University
(d) Osaka University
Answer: Keio University
Explanation: Since 2018, David J. Farber had been teaching at Keio University in Japan, continuing his academic and mentoring work in networking research.

Magnus Carlsen Wins 2026 FIDE Freestyle Chess World Championship

Q1. Who won the 2026 FIDE Freestyle Chess World Championship?
(a) Fabiano Caruana
(b) Magnus Carlsen
(c) Nodirbek Abdusattorov
(d) Levon Aronian
Answer: Magnus Carlsen
Explanation: Magnus Carlsen won the 2026 FIDE Freestyle Chess World Championship by defeating Fabiano Caruana in the final.

Q2. Magnus Carlsen defeated which player in the final of the 2026 Freestyle Chess World Championship?
(a) Hans Niemann
(b) Vincent Keymer
(c) Fabiano Caruana
(d) Nodirbek Abdusattorov
Answer: Fabiano Caruana
Explanation: Carlsen defeated Fabiano Caruana with a 2.5–1.5 scoreline in the four-game final.

Q3. The Freestyle Chess format is also popularly known as which of the following?
(a) Rapid Chess
(b) Blitz Chess
(c) Armageddon Chess
(d) Fischer Random Chess
Answer: Fischer Random Chess
Explanation: Freestyle Chess is also called Fischer Random Chess, where the back-rank pieces are arranged randomly to reduce dependence on opening theory.

Q4. The 2026 FIDE Freestyle Chess World Championship was held in which country?
(a) Norway
(b) United States
(c) Germany
(d) Kazakhstan
Answer: Germany
Explanation: The championship took place in Weissenhaus, Germany, from 13 to 15 February 2026.

Q5. FIDE, the governing body that recognised this championship, stands for which of the following?
(a) Federation of International Digital Events
(b) Fédération Internationale des Échecs
(c) Federal Institute of Digital Education
(d) Forum for International Development in Europe
Answer: Fédération Internationale des Échecs
Explanation: FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs) is the international governing body of chess.

DBS Bank Pilots Visa Intelligent Commerce in Asia-Pacific

Q1. Which bank became the first issuer in Asia-Pacific to pilot Visa Intelligent Commerce (VIC)?
(a) HSBC
(b) Standard Chartered
(c) DBS Bank
(d) OCBC Bank
Answer: DBS Bank
Explanation: DBS Bank became the first issuer in the Asia-Pacific region to pilot Visa Intelligent Commerce (VIC), marking a milestone in AI-driven digital payments.

Q2. Visa Intelligent Commerce (VIC) is primarily designed to enable what type of transactions?
(a) Cash-only rural payments
(b) Cryptocurrency mining
(c) Agent-initiated digital payments
(d) Offline cheque clearing
Answer: Agent-initiated digital payments
Explanation: Visa Intelligent Commerce allows AI agents to execute secure and consent-based digital transactions on behalf of users.

Q3. DBS Bank is headquartered in which country?
(a) Malaysia
(b) Singapore
(c) Australia
(d) Japan
Answer: Singapore
Explanation: DBS Bank is headquartered in Singapore and operates across 19 markets, making it a leading financial institution in Asia-Pacific.

Q4. In digital payments, tokenisation refers to which of the following?
(a) Printing physical payment tokens
(b) Converting cash into digital coins
(c) Replacing sensitive card data with secure digital tokens
(d) Encrypting passwords only
Answer: Replacing sensitive card data with secure digital tokens
Explanation: Tokenisation protects payment information by substituting actual card details with secure digital tokens, enhancing transaction security.

Q5. According to a Visa-commissioned study, what percentage of Singapore residents use generative AI chatbots in daily life?
(a) 55%
(b) 63%
(c) 77%
(d) 90%
Answer: 77%
Explanation: The study found that 77% of Singapore residents use generative AI chatbots daily, showing rapid adoption of AI tools in digital consumption and payments.

India-France Year of Innovation and Strategic Partnership

Q1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will meet which French leader to launch the ‘India-France Year of Innovation’?
(a) François Hollande
(b) Nicolas Sarkozy
(c) Emmanuel Macron
(d) Élisabeth Borne
Answer: Emmanuel Macron
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will meet Emmanuel Macron during his India visit to launch the ‘India-France Year of Innovation’ and strengthen bilateral cooperation.

Q2. The India-France Strategic Partnership was originally launched in which year?
(a) 1991
(b) 1998
(c) 2005
(d) 2010
Answer: 1998
Explanation: The India-France Strategic Partnership was established in 1998, forming the foundation for defence, technology and diplomatic cooperation between the two nations.

Q3. The Rafale fighter aircraft, recently approved for procurement by India, is manufactured by which company?
(a) Airbus
(b) Boeing
(c) Dassault Aviation
(d) Lockheed Martin
Answer: Dassault Aviation
Explanation: Rafale fighter jets are manufactured by Dassault Aviation, a major French aerospace company.

Q4. France is considered a resident power in the Indo-Pacific region mainly because of which of the following?
(a) Membership in ASEAN
(b) Naval base in Sri Lanka
(c) Overseas territories such as Réunion Island
(d) Permanent UN Security Council seat
Answer: Overseas territories such as Réunion Island
Explanation: France has overseas territories like Réunion Island in the Indo-Pacific, making it a resident power in the region.

Q5. The AI Action Summit, earlier co-chaired by India and France, primarily promoted which type of AI governance?
(a) Military-focused AI expansion
(b) Profit-driven AI development
(c) Human-centric, ethical and safe AI framework
(d) Fully autonomous AI systems without regulation
Answer: Human-centric, ethical and safe AI framework
Explanation: The AI Action Summit promoted a human-centric, ethical, safe and inclusive approach to artificial intelligence governance.

US Conducts First-Ever Air Transport of Micro Nuclear Reactor

Q1. The United States transported its first micro nuclear reactor by air using which military aircraft?
(a) B-52 Stratofortress
(b) C-17 Globemaster III
(c) F-35 Lightning II
(d) KC-46 Pegasus
Answer: C-17 Globemaster III
Explanation: The microreactor was transported aboard a C-17 military cargo aircraft, demonstrating rapid deployment capability for advanced nuclear systems.

Q2. The Ward microreactor was developed by which company?
(a) Westinghouse Electric
(b) General Electric
(c) Valar Atomics
(d) Lockheed Martin
Answer: Valar Atomics
Explanation: The Ward microreactor was developed by Valar Atomics, a California-based nuclear technology firm.

Q3. The microreactor was transported to which US military base?
(a) Edwards Air Force Base
(b) Hill Air Force Base
(c) Wright-Patterson Air Force Base
(d) Nellis Air Force Base
Answer: Hill Air Force Base
Explanation: The reactor was flown to Hill Air Force Base as part of a joint demonstration by the US Departments of Energy and Defense.

Q4. Microreactors are generally designed to produce up to how much electricity?
(a) 1 megawatt
(b) 5 megawatts
(c) 10 megawatts
(d) 50 megawatts
Answer: 10 megawatts
Explanation: Microreactors are advanced nuclear systems typically capable of generating up to 10 megawatts of power, suitable for remote or strategic locations.

Q5. In nuclear terminology, what does “criticality” refer to?
(a) Reactor shutdown process
(b) Maximum power generation
(c) Self-sustaining nuclear chain reaction
(d) Disposal of nuclear waste
Answer: Self-sustaining nuclear chain reaction
Explanation: Criticality refers to the stage at which a nuclear reactor achieves a self-sustaining chain reaction, enabling continuous energy production.

Rashid Khan Becomes First Bowler to Take 700 Wickets in Men’s T20 Cricket

Q1. Rashid Khan became the first bowler to claim 700 wickets in which format of cricket?
(a) Test Cricket
(b) One Day Internationals
(c) T20 Cricket
(d) First-Class Cricket
Answer: T20 Cricket
Explanation: Rashid Khan achieved the historic milestone of 700 wickets in men’s T20 cricket, including domestic leagues and international matches.

Q2. During which tournament did Rashid Khan achieve the 700-wicket milestone?
(a) Asia Cup 2026
(b) ICC Men’s ODI World Cup 2027
(c) ICC Champions Trophy 2026
(d) ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2026
Answer: ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2026
Explanation: The record was achieved during the 2026 ICC Men’s T20 World Cup in a group-stage match.

Q3. The historic match was played at which stadium?
(a) Wankhede Stadium
(b) Eden Gardens
(c) Arun Jaitley Stadium
(d) Narendra Modi Stadium
Answer: Arun Jaitley Stadium
Explanation: The milestone was reached at Arun Jaitley Stadium during Afghanistan’s match against the UAE.

Q4. Afghanistan gained ICC Full Member status in which year?
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
Answer: 2017
Explanation: Afghanistan became a Full Member of the International Cricket Council (ICC) in 2017, allowing it to play Test cricket.

Q5. T20 cricket is officially limited to how many overs per side?
(a) 10 overs
(b) 20 overs
(c) 40 overs
(d) 50 overs
Answer: 20 overs
Explanation: T20 is the shortest official international format of cricket, with each team allowed a maximum of 20 overs.

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