13 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

13 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

1898 – Émile Zola published “J’Accuse”

On 13 January 1898, French writer Émile Zola published the open letter “J’Accuse” in a newspaper.
The letter exposed injustice in the Dreyfus Affair and became a strong example of freedom of expression.

1978 – Death of Hubert Humphrey

On this day, Hubert Humphrey, former Vice President of the United States, passed away.
He was known for his role in civil rights and social welfare policies in the USA.

Lohri Festival (India)

Lohri is celebrated around 13 January in Punjab and northern India.
It marks the end of winter and is linked with harvest season and traditional folk culture.

Today Latest Post Current Affairs

13 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Navi Mumbai International Airport to be Named After D B Patil

Q1. The Navi Mumbai International Airport will be named after which prominent leader?
(a) Balasaheb Thackeray
(b) Gopinath Munde
(c) D B Patil
(d) Sharad Pawar
Answer: D B Patil
Explanation: The airport will be named after late D B Patil, a well-known people’s leader associated with farmers’ and land rights movements in the Navi Mumbai region.

Q2. Who announced the decision to name the Navi Mumbai International Airport after D B Patil?
(a) Eknath Shinde
(b) Uddhav Thackeray
(c) Ajit Pawar
(d) Devendra Fadnavis
Answer: Devendra Fadnavis
Explanation: Maharashtra Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis announced the decision while addressing a public meeting in Airoli.

Q3. Navi Mumbai International Airport is being developed primarily to serve which region?
(a) Pune Metropolitan Region
(b) Mumbai Metropolitan Region
(c) Nagpur Metropolitan Region
(d) Nashik Urban Region
Answer: Mumbai Metropolitan Region
Explanation: The Navi Mumbai International Airport is planned as the second major airport for the Mumbai Metropolitan Region to enhance global connectivity.

Q4. Which organization is developing the metro network to improve connectivity in Navi Mumbai?
(a) Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation
(b) Maharashtra State Road Development Corporation
(c) City and Industrial Development Corporation (CIDCO)
(d) National High Speed Rail Corporation
Answer: City and Industrial Development Corporation (CIDCO)
Explanation: CIDCO is the nodal agency responsible for planned development and infrastructure projects, including the metro network in Navi Mumbai.

Q5. The Shilar and Poshir projects mentioned in the news are related to which sector?
(a) Power generation
(b) Urban housing
(c) Drinking water supply
(d) Solid waste management
Answer: Drinking water supply
Explanation: The Shilar and Poshir projects are dedicated water supply schemes aimed at meeting Navi Mumbai’s future drinking water needs.

US Imposes 25% Tariff on Countries Trading with Iran

Q1. What trade measure has the United States announced against countries doing business with Iran?
(a) Complete trade ban
(b) 10 per cent import duty
(c) 25 per cent tariff
(d) Financial aid restriction
Answer: 25 per cent tariff
Explanation: The United States announced a sweeping trade measure imposing a 25 per cent tariff on any country that maintains commercial relations with Iran.

Q2. Who announced the 25 per cent tariff on countries trading with Iran?
(a) Joe Biden
(b) Antony Blinken
(c) Donald Trump
(d) Janet Yellen
Answer: Donald Trump
Explanation: US President Donald Trump announced the tariff through a statement posted on his Truth Social platform.

Q3. The US decision to impose tariffs is primarily aimed at economically isolating which country?
(a) Iraq
(b) Syria
(c) Iran
(d) Venezuela
Answer: Iran
Explanation: The tariff is part of Washington’s broader pressure strategy to economically isolate Iran amid political unrest and human rights concerns.

Q4. India’s major exports to Iran include which of the following?
(a) Crude oil and natural gas
(b) Rice, pharmaceuticals, and tea
(c) Automobiles and defence equipment
(d) Gold and precious metals
Answer: Rice, pharmaceuticals, and tea
Explanation: India exports items such as rice, tea, sugar, pharmaceuticals, electrical machinery, and artificial jewellery to Iran.

Q5. Which method is commonly used by the US to discourage third countries from trading with sanctioned nations like Iran?
(a) Export subsidies
(b) Free trade agreements
(c) Secondary sanctions and tariffs
(d) Currency manipulation
Answer: Secondary sanctions and tariffs
Explanation: The US uses secondary sanctions and tariffs to deter other countries from maintaining trade relations with sanctioned states such as Iran.

Allahabad High Court Ruling on Maintenance Rights under Section 125 CrPC

Q1. Which court ruled that a wife cannot be denied maintenance merely because she is educated or vocationally qualified?
(a) Supreme Court of India
(b) Delhi High Court
(c) Allahabad High Court
(d) Bombay High Court
Answer: Allahabad High Court
Explanation: The Allahabad High Court held that educational qualifications alone are not sufficient grounds to deny maintenance to a wife.

Q2. The judgment clarified the scope of which legal provision related to maintenance?
(a) Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act
(b) Section 125 of the CrPC
(c) Section 498A of the IPC
(d) Section 9 of the CPC
Answer: Section 125 of the CrPC
Explanation: Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides a statutory right to maintenance, and the court reaffirmed its protective and welfare-oriented intent.

Q3. According to the High Court, what is the key distinction that must be considered while deciding maintenance claims?
(a) Permanent job and temporary job
(b) Private and government employment
(c) Educational qualification and actual income
(d) Skilled and unskilled work
Answer: Educational qualification and actual income
Explanation: The court emphasised that potential earning capacity based on qualifications is different from actual gainful employment and cannot be treated as the same.

Q4. Which Family Court order was set aside by the Allahabad High Court in this case?
(a) Meerut Family Court
(b) Agra Family Court
(c) Bulandshahr Family Court
(d) Prayagraj Family Court
Answer: Bulandshahr Family Court
Explanation: The High Court set aside the Bulandshahr Family Court’s order, which had denied maintenance to the wife based on presumptions about her earning ability.

Q5. Why did the High Court term the maintenance awarded to the adolescent son as “meagre”?
(a) It was delayed
(b) It was unpaid
(c) It was insufficient for education and development
(d) It was awarded without evidence
Answer: It was insufficient for education and development
Explanation: The court observed that Rs 3,000 was inadequate to meet the child’s educational and developmental needs, stressing the need for reasonable financial support.

Odisha to Build Integrated Secretariat and Assembly Complex in Bhubaneswar

Q1. Who laid the foundation stone for the integrated secretariat and assembly complex in Bhubaneswar?
(a) Naveen Patnaik
(b) Ashwini Vaishnaw
(c) Mohan Charan Majhi
(d) Dharmendra Pradhan
Answer: Mohan Charan Majhi
Explanation: Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi laid the foundation stone for the new integrated secretariat and assembly complex.

Q2. What is the total estimated cost of the integrated secretariat and assembly complex project?
(a) Rs 1,950 crore
(b) Rs 2,800 crore
(c) Rs 3,623 crore
(d) Rs 4,500 crore
Answer: Rs 3,623 crore
Explanation: The integrated Lok Seva Bhawan and Vidhan Sabha complex is being constructed at an estimated cost of Rs 3,623 crore.

Q3. The design of Odisha’s new integrated complex is inspired by which major redevelopment project?
(a) Amaravati Capital Project
(b) Sabarmati Riverfront
(c) Central Vista Project
(d) GIFT City
Answer: Central Vista Project
Explanation: The project draws inspiration from the Central Vista redevelopment in New Delhi, which modernised India’s central administrative infrastructure.

Q4. What is the present strength of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
(a) 120 members
(b) 135 members
(c) 147 members
(d) 160 members
Answer: 147 members
Explanation: Odisha currently has 147 assembly seats, which are expected to increase after the delimitation exercise.

Q5. Why is the seating capacity of the new assembly hall planned for about 300 members?
(a) To host joint parliamentary sessions
(b) To accommodate visiting delegations
(c) To account for future increase after delimitation
(d) To merge council and assembly sessions
Answer: To account for future increase after delimitation
Explanation: After delimitation, the number of MLAs is expected to rise to nearly 196, and the higher seating capacity allows room for long-term expansion.

India Likely to Join US-Led Pax Silica Technology Initiative

Q1. Pax Silica is a strategic initiative launched by which organisation?
(a) US Department of Commerce
(b) US Department of Defense
(c) US Department of State
(d) National Science Foundation
Answer: US Department of State
Explanation: Pax Silica is a multilateral initiative launched by the United States Department of State to build a secure and resilient global technology ecosystem.

Q2. Which of the following best describes the main focus area of the Pax Silica initiative?
(a) Climate finance and green energy
(b) Global health security
(c) Advanced technologies, AI, and supply chain resilience
(d) Maritime security in the Indo-Pacific
Answer: Advanced technologies, AI, and supply chain resilience
Explanation: Pax Silica focuses on the full technology value chain, including critical minerals, semiconductors, energy security, and advanced artificial intelligence systems.

Q3. What does the term “coercive dependencies” refer to in the context of Pax Silica?
(a) Dependence on fossil fuels
(b) Over-reliance on one country for critical technologies
(c) Excessive government regulation of AI
(d) Dependence on foreign labour
Answer: Over-reliance on one country for critical technologies
Explanation: Reducing coercive dependencies means limiting excessive dependence on a single country for key materials or technologies to avoid economic or political pressure.

Q4. Which of the following countries was part of the inaugural Pax Silica summit?
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Iran
Answer: Japan
Explanation: The inaugural summit included major technology hubs such as Japan, South Korea, Singapore, the UK, the Netherlands, Israel, UAE, and Australia.

Q5. Why is India’s likely membership in Pax Silica considered significant?
(a) It provides military alliances
(b) It replaces existing trade agreements
(c) It supports India’s semiconductor and digital infrastructure goals
(d) It guarantees preferential tariffs from the US
Answer: It supports India’s semiconductor and digital infrastructure goals
Explanation: Joining Pax Silica would help India strengthen semiconductor manufacturing, secure critical minerals, shape global AI standards, and diversify technology supply chains.

India Reaffirms Commitment to Equitable Global Energy Transition at IRENA Assembly

Q1. At which international platform did India reiterate its commitment to a just and sustainable global energy transition?
(a) COP28 Climate Summit
(b) World Energy Forum
(c) 16th Assembly of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
(d) G20 Energy Ministers’ Meeting
Answer: 16th Assembly of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
Explanation: India reaffirmed its energy transition commitments at the 16th IRENA Assembly held in Abu Dhabi, a key global forum for renewable energy cooperation.

Q2. Who delivered India’s national statement at the IRENA Assembly in Abu Dhabi?
(a) Nitin Gadkari
(b) Pralhad Joshi
(c) Bhupender Yadav
(d) S. Jaishankar
Answer: Pralhad Joshi
Explanation: Union Minister for New and Renewable Energy Pralhad Joshi presented India’s national statement, outlining progress and priorities in renewable energy.

Q3. India’s energy transition vision is guided by which principle?
(a) Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas
(b) Net Zero First
(c) Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
(d) Green Growth Doctrine
Answer: Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
Explanation: India’s approach is based on the principle of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam, meaning “One Earth, One Family, One Future”, emphasising equity and inclusivity.

Q4. What is India’s target for non-fossil fuel installed power capacity by 2030?
(a) 300 GW
(b) 400 GW
(c) 450 GW
(d) 500 GW
Answer: 500 GW
Explanation: India has committed to achieving 500 GW of non-fossil fuel installed power capacity by 2030 as part of its climate and development goals.

Q5. Under the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, how many households have benefited from rooftop solar installations so far?
(a) About 1 million
(b) About 1.5 million
(c) About 2.5 million
(d) About 5 million
Answer: About 2.5 million
Explanation: Around 2.5 million households have already benefited from rooftop solar installations under the PM Surya Ghar scheme, with a target of 10 million households by March 2027.

Boda Tyohar – Major Tribal Festival of the Hati Community

Q1. Boda Tyohar is the largest annual cultural festival of which tribal community?
(a) Gaddi tribe
(b) Gujjar tribe
(c) Hati tribe
(d) Kinnaura tribe
Answer: Hati tribe
Explanation: Boda Tyohar is the biggest annual festival of the Hati Scheduled Tribe, reflecting their social values, rituals and cultural identity.

Q2. Boda Tyohar is primarily celebrated in which region of Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Lahaul-Spiti region
(b) Kangra Valley
(c) Trans-Giri region of Sirmour district
(d) Kullu Valley
Answer: Trans-Giri region of Sirmour district
Explanation: The festival is mainly celebrated in the Trans-Giri region of Sirmour district, with festivities also extending to nearby areas.

Q3. Boda Tyohar is also popularly known as which of the following?
(a) Losar Tyohar
(b) Magho ko Tyohar
(c) Phulaich Tyohar
(d) Halda Festival
Answer: Magho ko Tyohar
Explanation: Boda Tyohar is also called Magho ko Tyohar and holds great socio-religious importance in the life of the Hati community.

Q4. The celebrations of Boda Tyohar begin on the eve of which day?
(a) Magh Purnima
(b) Paush Amavasya
(c) Posh Dwadashi
(d) Makar Sankranti
Answer: Posh Dwadashi
Explanation: The month-long festival begins on the eve of Posh Dwadashi and is divided into three smaller festive phases.

Q5. The Hati community was granted Scheduled Tribe status in which year?
(a) 2019
(b) 2021
(c) 2022
(d) 2023
Answer: 2023
Explanation: After a long movement of 56 years, the Hati community was officially granted Scheduled Tribe status through a constitutional amendment in August 2023.

Indian Army Launches DIME Digital Platform to Modernise Logistics

Q1. What is the name of the new pan-Army digital platform launched to modernise logistics?
(a) LOGNET
(b) DIME
(c) e-Sainik
(d) ArmyLogX
Answer: DIME
Explanation: The Indian Army launched the Depot Integration Management Edition (DIME) as a pan-Army digital platform to streamline and modernise its logistics ecosystem.

Q2. What is the full form of DIME in the context of Indian Army logistics?
(a) Digital Inventory Management Engine
(b) Depot Integration Management Edition
(c) Defence Integrated Management Enterprise
(d) Digital Infrastructure for Military Equipment
Answer: Depot Integration Management Edition
Explanation: DIME stands for Depot Integration Management Edition, as officially stated in the initiative.

Q3. DIME has been jointly developed by the Indian Army and which organisation?
(a) DRDO
(b) ISRO
(c) BISAG-N
(d) NIC
Answer: BISAG-N
Explanation: The platform was jointly developed by the Indian Army and the Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N).

Q4. One of the key objectives of the DIME platform is to reduce paperwork by approximately how much?
(a) 30 per cent
(b) 50 per cent
(c) 60 per cent
(d) 70 per cent
Answer: 70 per cent
Explanation: DIME is expected to reduce paperwork by nearly 70 per cent by replacing manual processes with standardised digital workflows.

Q5. Which of the following features of DIME helps commanders in proactive logistics planning?
(a) Manual stock registers
(b) Periodic offline reports
(c) Predictive stock analytics and alerts
(d) Decentralised paper-based records
Answer: Predictive stock analytics and alerts
Explanation: DIME provides integrated dashboards, exception-based alerts and predictive stock analytics, enabling timely and data-driven logistics decisions.

Indian Army Inducts Solar-Powered MAPSS Surveillance Drone

Q1. What is the name of the solar-powered surveillance drone system inducted by the Indian Army?
(a) RUSTOM-II
(b) Ghatak
(c) MAPSS
(d) Netra
Answer: MAPSS
Explanation: The Indian Army inducted the Medium Altitude Persistent Surveillance System (MAPSS), marking its first operational use of a solar-powered unmanned aerial platform.

Q2. MAPSS stands for which of the following?
(a) Medium Altitude Patrol Surveillance System
(b) Multi-Access Persistent Security System
(c) Medium Altitude Persistent Surveillance System
(d) Modular Aerial Persistent Sensor System
Answer: Medium Altitude Persistent Surveillance System
Explanation: MAPSS is officially expanded as Medium Altitude Persistent Surveillance System, designed for long-endurance surveillance missions.

Q3. Which company developed the MAPSS solar-powered drone system?
(a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(b) Bharat Electronics Limited
(c) NewSpace Research & Technologies
(d) Tata Advanced Systems
Answer: NewSpace Research & Technologies
Explanation: MAPSS has been developed by Bengaluru-based NewSpace Research & Technologies under the Defence Ministry’s innovation framework.

Q4. What is the key operational advantage of MAPSS over conventional unmanned aerial systems?
(a) Supersonic speed
(b) Heavy weapon-carrying capability
(c) Solar-powered long-endurance flight
(d) Stealth coating technology
Answer: Solar-powered long-endurance flight
Explanation: MAPSS uses solar energy, allowing it to remain airborne for extended durations without fuel or battery constraints, ideal for persistent border surveillance.

Q5. The MAPSS drone system has been developed under which Defence Ministry initiative?
(a) Make in India Defence
(b) Strategic Partnership Model
(c) iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence)
(d) Defence Procurement Procedure
Answer: iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence)
Explanation: The system was developed under the iDEX framework, which promotes defence innovation through Indian startups and indigenous technologies.

SCORP – India’s First Legged Mobile Manipulator Robot

Q1. What is SCORP, recently unveiled by an Indian deep-tech startup?
(a) India’s first humanoid robot
(b) India’s first autonomous drone swarm
(c) India’s first legged mobile manipulator
(d) India’s first industrial robotic arm
Answer: India’s first legged mobile manipulator
Explanation: SCORP is India’s first legged mobile manipulator, combining legged mobility with a robotic arm to operate in complex and unstructured environments.

Q2. Which company has developed the SCORP robotic system?
(a) Tata Advanced Systems
(b) Larsen & Toubro Robotics
(c) xTerra Robotics
(d) Bharat Electronics Limited
Answer: xTerra Robotics
Explanation: SCORP has been developed by deep-tech startup xTerra Robotics, highlighting the growing role of Indian startups in advanced robotics.

Q3. SCORP has been incubated at which premier Indian institute?
(a) IIT Delhi
(b) IIT Bombay
(c) IISc Bengaluru
(d) IIT Kanpur
Answer: IIT Kanpur
Explanation: The robotic system was incubated at IIT Kanpur, reflecting the institute’s contribution to cutting-edge robotics and deep-tech innovation.

Q4. What key advantage do legged mobile manipulators like SCORP offer over wheeled robots?
(a) Higher top speed
(b) Ability to fly short distances
(c) Navigation over uneven terrain with physical manipulation
(d) Lower manufacturing cost
Answer: Navigation over uneven terrain with physical manipulation
Explanation: Legged mobile manipulators can climb stairs, traverse rubble and slopes, and simultaneously perform tasks using robotic arms—capabilities not possible with wheeled platforms.

Q5. Which of the following is a major application area of SCORP?
(a) Space exploration only
(b) Agricultural harvesting
(c) Industrial inspection and hazardous environment operations
(d) Underwater exploration
Answer: Industrial inspection and hazardous environment operations
Explanation: SCORP is designed for industrial inspection, infrastructure monitoring, defence, safety checks and operations in hazardous environments, reducing human risk.

BHASHINI Samudaye – Strengthening India’s Language AI Ecosystem

Q1. Which ministry is organising the workshop “BHASHINI Samudaye: Strengthening India’s Language AI Ecosystem”?
(a) Ministry of Education
(b) Ministry of Culture
(c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Answer: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Explanation: The workshop is being organised by the Digital India BHASHINI Division under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Q2. BHASHINI operates under which national mission?
(a) National Digital Literacy Mission
(b) National Language Translation Mission
(c) National e-Governance Mission
(d) Digital India Mission
Answer: National Language Translation Mission
Explanation: BHASHINI functions under the National Language Translation Mission with the objective of eliminating language barriers in digital services.

Q3. What is the primary objective of the BHASHINI Samudaye initiative?
(a) Promoting English as a global language
(b) Developing hardware for AI systems
(c) Strengthening collaboration in multilingual AI
(d) Training government officers in coding
Answer: Strengthening collaboration in multilingual AI
Explanation: BHASHINI Samudaye brings together experts, institutions and civil society to build a collaborative and inclusive multilingual AI ecosystem in India.

Q4. Who is the Chief Executive Officer of the Digital India BHASHINI Division?
(a) Shailendra Pal Singh
(b) Rajeev Chandrasekhar
(c) Amitabh Nag
(d) Ashwini Vaishnaw
Answer: Amitabh Nag
Explanation: Amitabh Nag, CEO of the Digital India BHASHINI Division, is participating in a fireside chat reflecting on BHASHINI’s evolution and partnerships.

Q5. What is BhashaDaan in the context of BHASHINI?
(a) A language certification programme
(b) A translation software for officials
(c) A citizen contribution platform
(d) A multilingual search engine
Answer: A citizen contribution platform
Explanation: BhashaDaan is BHASHINI’s citizen contribution platform that enables community-led data creation to support multilingual AI development.

India–Israel Cooperation on Blue Food Security and Blue Economy

Q1. Which Union Minister of India will visit Israel to participate in the Second Global Summit on Blue Food Security?
(a) Ashwini Vaishnaw
(b) Rajiv Ranjan Singh
(c) Piyush Goyal
(d) Bhupender Yadav
Answer: Rajiv Ranjan Singh
Explanation: Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying Shri Rajiv Ranjan Singh will represent India at the Second Global Summit on Blue Food Security.

Q2. The Second Global Summit on Blue Food Security: Sea the Future is being held in which city?
(a) Tel Aviv
(b) Jerusalem
(c) Haifa
(d) Eilat
Answer: Eilat
Explanation: The summit is being hosted in Eilat, Israel, bringing together global stakeholders on fisheries, aquaculture and food security.

Q3. India’s participation in the Blue Food Security Summit primarily reflects focus on which area?
(a) Space technology cooperation
(b) Defence manufacturing
(c) Sustainable fisheries and aquaculture
(d) Digital governance reforms
Answer: Sustainable fisheries and aquaculture
Explanation: India’s participation highlights its growing emphasis on sustainable fisheries, aquaculture innovation and climate-resilient blue food systems.

Q4. The visit of the Indian Union Minister is being undertaken on the invitation of which Israeli Minister?
(a) Minister of Economy
(b) Minister of Defence
(c) Minister of Agriculture and Food Security
(d) Minister of Foreign Affairs
Answer: Minister of Agriculture and Food Security
Explanation: The visit is being undertaken on the invitation of Israel’s Minister of Agriculture and Food Security, Avi Dichter.

Q5. Which of the following areas is a key focus of India–Israel cooperation discussed during the visit?
(a) Nuclear energy development
(b) Space exploration
(c) Fisheries, aquaculture and blue economy
(d) Tourism promotion
Answer: Fisheries, aquaculture and blue economy
Explanation: The bilateral engagements focus on strengthening cooperation in fisheries, aquaculture and the broader blue economy, with emphasis on sustainability, innovation and food security.

India to Host the 28th Conference of Speakers and Presiding Officers of the Commonwealth (CSPOC)

Q1. Which country is hosting the 28th Conference of Speakers and Presiding Officers of the Commonwealth (CSPOC)?
(a) United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) Canada
Answer: India
Explanation: India is hosting the 28th CSPOC in New Delhi, highlighting its role as a leading parliamentary democracy within the Commonwealth.

Q2. CSPOC stands for which of the following?
(a) Council of Speakers of Parliamentary Organisations of Commonwealth
(b) Conference of Speakers and Presiding Officers of the Commonwealth
(c) Committee of State Parliaments of Commonwealth
(d) Convention of Speakers of Commonwealth
Answer: Conference of Speakers and Presiding Officers of the Commonwealth
Explanation: CSPOC is a premier parliamentary forum aimed at promoting parliamentary democracy and cooperation among Commonwealth nations.

Q3. Who is serving as the Chairperson of the 28th CSPOC?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Lindsay Hoyle
(c) Om Birla
(d) Jitendra Singh
Answer: Om Birla
Explanation: Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla is the Chairperson of the 28th CSPOC and also chairs the CSPOC Standing Committee meeting.

Q4. Who will formally inaugurate the 28th CSPOC in New Delhi?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice President of India
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Answer: Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Explanation: The Conference will be inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan on 15 January.

Q5. After the conclusion of the Conference, the Chair of CSPOC will be handed over to whom?
(a) Speaker of Australian Parliament
(b) Speaker of Canadian House of Commons
(c) Speaker of UK House of Commons
(d) Speaker of New Zealand Parliament
Answer: Speaker of UK House of Commons
Explanation: After the event, the CSPOC Chairmanship will be transferred to Lindsay Hoyle, Speaker of the UK House of Commons.

RBI Issues Foreign Exchange Management (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026

Q1. Which institution issued the Foreign Exchange Management (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Department of Economic Affairs
Answer: Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the Foreign Exchange Management (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026 to regulate guarantees involving persons resident outside India.

Q2. The Foreign Exchange Management (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026 primarily deal with guarantees involving which category of persons?
(a) Only Indian residents
(b) Only government entities
(c) Persons resident outside India
(d) Cooperative banks
Answer: Persons resident outside India
Explanation: The new regulations establish a regulatory framework for guarantees that involve non-residents under the Foreign Exchange Management regime.

Q3. Which category of banks has been directed to comply with the new guarantee regulations while facilitating such transactions?
(a) Regional Rural Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Authorised Dealer Category-I banks
(d) Small Finance Banks
Answer: Authorised Dealer Category-I banks
Explanation: RBI has instructed all Authorised Dealer Category-I banks to follow the new regulations and related instructions while handling guarantees linked to non-residents.

Q4. From which period has the RBI discontinued quarterly reporting on guarantees issued for Trade Credit?
(a) Quarter ending December 2025
(b) Quarter ending March 2026
(c) Quarter ending June 2026
(d) Quarter ending September 2026
Answer: Quarter ending March 2026
Explanation: The RBI has discontinued the requirement of quarterly reporting on Trade Credit guarantees with effect from the quarter ending March 2026.

Q5. The Foreign Exchange Management (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026 have been issued under which Act?
(a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(c) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
(d) Companies Act, 2013
Answer: Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
Explanation: The regulations are issued under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 to strengthen oversight and ensure orderly development of the foreign exchange market.

Union Government to Strengthen Community Forest Resource (CFR) Management under Forest Rights Act

Q1. Under which Act are Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights vested in gram sabhas?
(a) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(b) Indian Forest Act, 1927
(c) Forest Rights Act, 2006
(d) Environment Protection Act, 1986
Answer: Forest Rights Act, 2006
Explanation: The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 legally recognises and vests Community Forest Resource rights in gram sabhas of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest-dwellers.

Q2. Which ministry is leading discussions to provide funding support for CFR management committees?
(a) Ministry of Rural Development
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Explanation: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is coordinating with the Environment Ministry to explore financial support for gram sabha–led CFR management committees.

Q3. CFR management committees were formally mandated through guidelines issued in which year?
(a) 2018
(b) 2020
(c) 2023
(d) 2025
Answer: 2023
Explanation: In 2023, the Tribal Affairs Ministry issued guidelines mandating the formation of CFR management committees under the authority of title-holding gram sabhas.

Q4. Which body has the primary authority over conservation and management plans under CFR rights?
(a) Forest Department
(b) District Collector
(c) Gram Sabha
(d) State Forest Advisory Committee
Answer: Gram Sabha
Explanation: Under the Forest Rights Act, conservation and management of community forest resources are community-led, with gram sabhas holding primary authority.

Q5. Why is the Union government exploring funding support for CFR management committees?
(a) To privatise forest management
(b) To replace gram sabhas with forest officials
(c) To support effective community-led forest management
(d) To expand commercial forestry
Answer: To support effective community-led forest management
Explanation: Funding is required for staffing, training and preparation of management plans, while safeguards are being considered to ensure forests remain under community control.

Supreme Court Split Verdict on Section 17A of Prevention of Corruption Act

Q1. Which provision of the Prevention of Corruption Act mandates prior sanction before initiating a probe against a public servant?
(a) Section 13
(b) Section 15
(c) Section 17
(d) Section 17A
Answer: Section 17A
Explanation: Section 17A requires prior approval of the competent authority before starting any enquiry, inquiry, or investigation against a public servant for decisions taken in official capacity.

Q2. Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act was inserted through which amendment?
(a) 2014 Amendment
(b) 2016 Amendment
(c) 2018 Amendment
(d) 2021 Amendment
Answer: 2018 Amendment
Explanation: Section 17A was introduced by the 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

Q3. Which judge held Section 17A to be unconstitutional in the split verdict?
(a) Justice K V Viswanathan
(b) Justice Surya Kant
(c) Justice B V Nagarathna
(d) Justice U U Lalit
Answer: Justice B V Nagarathna
Explanation: Justice B V Nagarathna ruled that mandatory prior sanction at the threshold weakens anti-corruption investigations and shields corrupt officials.

Q4. Who upheld the constitutional validity of Section 17A, citing protection of honest officers?
(a) Justice B V Nagarathna
(b) Justice K V Viswanathan
(c) Justice Surya Kant
(d) Justice D Y Chandrachud
Answer: Justice K V Viswanathan
Explanation: Justice K V Viswanathan supported Section 17A, stating it protects honest officers from frivolous and motivated investigations.

Q5. What is the next procedural step after the Supreme Court delivers a split verdict?
(a) Case is dismissed
(b) Matter is sent to Parliament
(c) Case is referred to a larger bench
(d) Review petition is mandatory
Answer: Case is referred to a larger bench
Explanation: When there is a split verdict, the matter is placed before the Chief Justice of India for constitution of a larger bench to decide the issue conclusively.

Abla El Hawary Becomes First Woman to Preside Over Egypt’s Parliament

Q1. Who became the first woman to preside over the opening session of Egypt’s House of Representatives?
(a) Hala Shukrallah
(b) Abla El Hawary
(c) Maya Morsi
(d) Sahar Nasr
Answer: Abla El Hawary
Explanation: Abla El Hawary presided over the opening session of Egypt’s House of Representatives, becoming the first woman to do so in the country’s parliamentary history.

Q2. On which date did Abla El Hawary preside over the opening session of Egypt’s Parliament?
(a) January 10, 2026
(b) January 11, 2026
(c) January 12, 2026
(d) January 15, 2026
Answer: January 12, 2026
Explanation: The historic event took place on January 12, 2026, marking a milestone for women’s political representation in Egypt.

Q3. Why did Abla El Hawary chair the inaugural sitting of the House of Representatives?
(a) She was elected Speaker
(b) She was nominated by the President
(c) She was the senior-most member of the House
(d) She was the leader of the ruling party
Answer: She was the senior-most member of the House
Explanation: As per Egypt’s constitutional procedure, the senior-most MP temporarily chairs the opening session of a newly elected House.

Q4. How many members are there in Egypt’s House of Representatives?
(a) 500
(b) 545
(c) 575
(d) 596
Answer: 596
Explanation: Egypt’s House of Representatives consists of 596 members, all of whom took the constitutional oath during the opening session.

Q5. Which constitutional provision reflects Egypt’s commitment to women’s representation in Parliament?
(a) Reservation of 10% seats for women
(b) Reservation of 15% seats for women
(c) Reservation of 25% seats for women
(d) Reservation of 33% seats for women
Answer: Reservation of 25% seats for women
Explanation: Egypt’s Constitution reserves 25% of parliamentary seats for women, resulting in women constituting over one-fourth of the Parliament.

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