13 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

13 February– Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

• 1879 – Sarojini Naidu, the “Nightingale of India,” was born.
• 1945 – Allied forces began the bombing of Dresden during World War II.
• 1960 – France conducted its first atomic bomb test in the Sahara Desert (Algeria).

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13 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Decline in Indian Students Pursuing Higher Education Abroad (2023–2025)

Q1. According to government data, which body compiles outbound student statistics for Indians going abroad?
(a) Ministry of External Affairs
(b) University Grants Commission
(c) Bureau of Immigration
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: Bureau of Immigration
Explanation: The data on Indian students travelling abroad for higher studies is compiled by the Bureau of Immigration under the Union Home Ministry.

Q2. Approximately how many Indian students went abroad for higher education in 2025?
(a) 9.08 lakh
(b) 7.7 lakh
(c) 6.26 lakh
(d) 5.5 lakh
Answer: 6.26 lakh
Explanation: Government data shows that the number declined to 6.26 lakh in 2025, compared to 9.08 lakh in 2023.

Q3. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 mainly focuses on which of the following in higher education?
(a) Privatisation of all universities
(b) Internationalisation and quality improvement
(c) Abolishing entrance examinations
(d) Reducing research funding
Answer: Internationalisation and quality improvement
Explanation: NEP 2020 promotes internationalisation of higher education, research, innovation, better accreditation, and improved infrastructure in India.

Q4. Which location has been designated as a hub for global educational institutions in India?
(a) Hyderabad IT Park
(b) Bengaluru Knowledge City
(c) GIFT City, Gujarat
(d) Noida Education Zone
Answer: GIFT City, Gujarat
Explanation: GIFT City in Gujarat has been identified as a hub where foreign universities are allowed to establish campuses.

Q5. What is one major reason cited for the decline in Indian students going abroad?
(a) Ban on foreign education
(b) Closure of international borders
(c) Global economic conditions and stricter visa regimes
(d) Complete availability of all courses in India
Answer: Global economic conditions and stricter visa regimes
Explanation: Factors such as global economic slowdown, stricter visa policies, rising tuition fees, and currency fluctuations have influenced students’ decisions to study abroad.

Saudi Arabia Announces Human Capability Initiative (HCI) Conference 2026

Q1. The third edition of the Human Capability Initiative (HCI) Conference 2026 will be held in which city?
(a) Jeddah
(b) Dubai
(c) Riyadh
(d) Doha
Answer: Riyadh
Explanation: HCI 2026 is scheduled to take place in Riyadh, the capital city of Saudi Arabia, on 3–4 May 2026.

Q2. Which country has been designated as the Country of Honor for HCI 2026?
(a) United States
(b) United Kingdom
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer: United Kingdom
Explanation: The United Kingdom has been named the Country of Honor, highlighting growing cooperation in education, workforce development and economic policy.

Q3. The Human Capability Development Program (HCDP) is a part of which major national initiative?
(a) Qatar National Vision 2030
(b) UAE Centennial Plan
(c) Saudi Vision 2030
(d) Oman Vision 2040
Answer: Saudi Vision 2030
Explanation: HCDP forms part of Saudi Vision 2030, which aims to diversify the economy and build a knowledge-based society.

Q4. HCI 2026 will be organised under the patronage of which Saudi leader?
(a) King Salman bin Abdulaziz
(b) Prince Abdulaziz bin Salman
(c) Prince Mohammed bin Salman
(d) Prince Khalid bin Salman
Answer: Prince Mohammed bin Salman
Explanation: The conference will be held under the patronage of Crown Prince and Prime Minister Mohammed bin Salman, who also chairs the HCDP Committee.

Q5. The central theme of HCI 2026 is:
(a) Digital Economy for All
(b) Skills for Sustainable Future
(c) The Human Code
(d) AI and Global Markets
Answer: The Human Code
Explanation: The theme of the third edition of HCI is “The Human Code,” focusing on maximising human potential in the age of artificial intelligence.

Exercise Vayushakti-26 to be Conducted by Indian Air Force

Q1. Exercise Vayushakti-26 will be conducted at which location?
(a) Pokhran Air-to-Ground Range, Rajasthan
(b) Thar Desert Field Firing Range, Gujarat
(c) Leh Air Base, Ladakh
(d) Gwalior Air Force Station, Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Pokhran Air-to-Ground Range, Rajasthan
Explanation: Exercise Vayushakti-26 will be held at the Pokhran Air-to-Ground Range in Rajasthan, a major site for IAF firepower demonstrations.

Q2. Exercise Vayushakti is primarily organised by which armed force of India?
(a) Indian Army
(b) Indian Navy
(c) Indian Coast Guard
(d) Indian Air Force
Answer: Indian Air Force
Explanation: Vayushakti is a large-scale operational firepower exercise conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) to showcase its combat readiness and air power.

Q3. Which of the following is an indigenously developed surface-to-air missile system used by the IAF?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Akash
(c) Nag
(d) Trishul
Answer: Akash
Explanation: Akash is an indigenously developed surface-to-air missile system and is part of India’s push for self-reliance under Aatmanirbhar Bharat.

Q4. Which of the following aircraft is a frontline fighter jet of the Indian Air Force?
(a) Rafale
(b) P-8I Poseidon
(c) INS Vikrant
(d) Arjun Tank
Answer: Rafale
Explanation: Rafale is one of the key frontline fighter aircraft of the IAF, participating in high-intensity combat and precision strike missions.

Q5. The concept of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ in the defence sector mainly promotes:
(a) Import of advanced weapons
(b) Joint military exercises with foreign nations
(c) Indigenous defence manufacturing
(d) Reduction in defence budget
Answer: Indigenous defence manufacturing
Explanation: ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ aims to promote self-reliance by encouraging indigenous production of defence equipment and advanced military systems.

World Radio Day Conclave 2026 Organised by All India Radio, Raipur

Q1. World Radio Day is observed every year on which date?
(a) 10 February
(b) 12 February
(c) 13 February
(d) 15 February
Answer: 13 February
Explanation: World Radio Day is observed annually on 13 February to recognise radio as an important medium for information and communication.

Q2. The theme of the World Radio Day Conclave 2026 organised in Raipur is:
(a) Radio and Digital India
(b) Radio and Artificial Intelligence
(c) Future of Public Broadcasting
(d) Media and Democracy
Answer: Radio and Artificial Intelligence
Explanation: The 2026 conclave focuses on the theme “Radio and Artificial Intelligence,” highlighting the integration of AI in broadcasting and content production.

Q3. Which international organisation is collaborating in the World Radio Day Conclave 2026?
(a) World Bank
(b) UNICEF
(c) UNESCO
(d) IMF
Answer: UNESCO
Explanation: The event is being organised in collaboration with UNESCO, which proclaimed 13 February as World Radio Day in 2011.

Q4. February 13 was chosen as World Radio Day because it marks:
(a) Launch of All India Radio
(b) Establishment of United Nations Radio in 1946
(c) Adoption of FM broadcasting in India
(d) Formation of Prasar Bharati
Answer: Establishment of United Nations Radio in 1946
Explanation: The date commemorates the founding of United Nations Radio in 1946, recognising radio’s global importance.

Q5. UNESCO’s General Conference proclaimed World Radio Day in which year?
(a) 2005
(b) 2009
(c) 2011
(d) 2015
Answer: 2011
Explanation: UNESCO proclaimed 13 February as World Radio Day in 2011, and later the UN General Assembly adopted it in 2012.

Uttar Pradesh Budget 2026–27 Presented with ₹9.12 Lakh Crore Outlay

Q1. What is the total outlay of the Uttar Pradesh Budget for 2026–27?
(a) ₹8,75,000 crore
(b) ₹9,12,696.35 crore
(c) ₹10,00,000 crore
(d) ₹7,95,000 crore
Answer: ₹9,12,696.35 crore
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh Finance Minister Suresh Khanna presented a ₹9,12,696.35 crore Budget for 2026–27, marking a 12.9% increase over the previous year.

Q2. As per Finance Commission norms, the fiscal deficit of states is capped at what percentage of GSDP?
(a) 2%
(b) 2.5%
(c) 3%
(d) 4%
Answer: 3%
Explanation: In line with Finance Commission recommendations, the fiscal deficit of states is capped at 3% of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP).

Q3. What percentage of the total Budget outlay has been allocated to capital expenditure in 2026–27?
(a) 15%
(b) 17.8%
(c) 19.5%
(d) 22%
Answer: 19.5%
Explanation: Capital expenditure has been pegged at 19.5% of the total Budget outlay, indicating focus on infrastructure and asset creation.

Q4. Ayushman Bharat provides health insurance coverage up to how much per family annually?
(a) ₹2 lakh
(b) ₹3 lakh
(c) ₹5 lakh
(d) ₹10 lakh
Answer: ₹5 lakh
Explanation: Under Ayushman Bharat, eligible families receive health coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.

Q5. The SDG India Index, which measures states’ performance on Sustainable Development Goals, is released by:
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) RBI
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Answer: NITI Aayog
Explanation: The SDG India Index is released by NITI Aayog to assess states and Union Territories on progress towards Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Defence Acquisition Council Clears ₹3.6 Lakh Crore Defence Procurement Proposal

Q1. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently cleared defence projects worth approximately how much?
(a) ₹2.5 lakh crore
(b) ₹3 lakh crore
(c) ₹3.6 lakh crore
(d) ₹4 lakh crore
Answer: ₹3.6 lakh crore
Explanation: The DAC approved one of India’s largest defence procurement proposals worth about ₹3.6 lakh crore to strengthen national security and military capability.

Q2. Under the MRFA programme, how many Rafale fighter jets are proposed to be procured?
(a) 72
(b) 90
(c) 114
(d) 126
Answer: 114
Explanation: The Multi Role Fighter Aircraft (MRFA) programme aims to procure 114 Rafale jets to enhance the Indian Air Force’s combat strength.

Q3. What does ‘AoN’ stand for in India’s defence procurement process?
(a) Approval of Nomination
(b) Acceptance of Necessity
(c) Authorization of Navy
(d) Allocation of Notification
Answer: Acceptance of Necessity
Explanation: Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) is the first formal step in India’s defence procurement process before technical and commercial negotiations.

Q4. The Air-Ship Based High Altitude Pseudo Satellite (AS-HAPS) mainly operates in which layer of the atmosphere?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: Stratosphere
Explanation: AS-HAPS operates in the stratosphere and is used for long-duration Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) missions.

Q5. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) functions under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Defence
(d) Ministry of Finance
Answer: Ministry of Defence
Explanation: The DAC is the apex decision-making body for capital procurement in the Ministry of Defence and is chaired by the Defence Minister.

Russia Blocks WhatsApp Over Legal Non-Compliance

Q1. Which country recently blocked the messaging platform WhatsApp citing legal non-compliance?
(a) China
(b) Iran
(c) Russia
(d) Turkey
Answer: Russia
Explanation: Russia blocked WhatsApp, stating that the platform failed to comply with domestic data and technology laws.

Q2. WhatsApp is owned by which company?
(a) Google
(b) Meta Platforms Inc.
(c) Microsoft
(d) Amazon
Answer: Meta Platforms Inc.
Explanation: WhatsApp is owned by Meta Platforms Inc., a US-based technology company.

Q3. The Russian government has promoted which domestic messaging platform as an alternative to WhatsApp?
(a) VK Chat
(b) Signal
(c) Max
(d) WeChat
Answer: Max
Explanation: Russian authorities encouraged users to migrate to “Max,” a state-backed messaging service positioned as a national alternative.

Q4. What is the main purpose of end-to-end encryption in messaging platforms?
(a) To store data in cloud servers
(b) To allow government monitoring
(c) To ensure only communicating users can read messages
(d) To reduce internet speed
Answer: To ensure only communicating users can read messages
Explanation: End-to-end encryption protects user privacy by allowing only the sender and receiver to read the messages.

Q5. Russia’s data localisation laws require that user data must be:
(a) Stored in foreign servers
(b) Shared with international agencies
(c) Stored within Russian territory
(d) Deleted after 30 days
Answer: Stored within Russian territory
Explanation: Under Russia’s data localisation rules, companies must store user data within the country and comply with national information security regulations.

Italy Registers First-Ever ICC Men’s T20 World Cup Victory

Q1. Italy secured their first-ever ICC Men’s T20 World Cup victory by defeating which team?
(a) Scotland
(b) Nepal
(c) Ireland
(d) Netherlands
Answer: Nepal
Explanation: Italy defeated Nepal by 10 wickets, marking their first victory in the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup.

Q2. A victory by 10 wickets in T20 cricket indicates that:
(a) The match was tied
(b) The team defended the total successfully
(c) The chasing team did not lose any wickets
(d) The match ended under Duckworth-Lewis method
Answer: The chasing team did not lose any wickets
Explanation: A 10-wicket win means the chasing team achieved the target without losing a single wicket.

Q3. The ICC Men’s T20 World Cup is organised by which body?
(a) BCCI
(b) ICC
(c) MCC
(d) ACC
Answer: ICC
Explanation: The tournament is organised by the International Cricket Council (ICC), the global governing body of cricket.

Q4. In T20 cricket, the Powerplay refers to:
(a) The last five overs of the innings
(b) The first six overs with fielding restrictions
(c) A batting bonus period
(d) Super Over rules
Answer: The first six overs with fielding restrictions
Explanation: In T20 matches, the Powerplay covers the first six overs, during which fielding restrictions apply to encourage attacking batting.

Q5. Wankhede Stadium, where this historic win was recorded, is located in:
(a) Chennai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Answer: Mumbai
Explanation: Wankhede Stadium is situated in Mumbai and has hosted several major ICC tournaments and international matches.

Bulgarian President Appoints Andrey Gyurov as Interim Prime Minister

Q1. Who has been appointed as interim Prime Minister of Bulgaria ahead of the April 19 elections?
(a) Iliana Yotova
(b) Boyko Borissov
(c) Andrey Gyurov
(d) Rumen Radev
Answer: Andrey Gyurov
Explanation: Bulgarian President Iliana Yotova appointed central bank deputy governor Andrey Gyurov as interim Prime Minister to oversee the upcoming national elections.

Q2. Bulgaria is a member of which of the following organisations?
(a) ASEAN and NATO
(b) EU and NATO
(c) BRICS and EU
(d) SAARC and NATO
Answer: EU and NATO
Explanation: Bulgaria is a member of both the European Union (EU) and the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).

Q3. The caretaker government in Bulgaria has been primarily tasked with:
(a) Introducing constitutional reforms
(b) Implementing tax cuts
(c) Organising free and fair national elections
(d) Negotiating EU trade deals
Answer: Organising free and fair national elections
Explanation: The interim government’s main responsibility is to conduct free and fair elections amid political instability.

Q4. The parliamentary threshold in Bulgaria is:
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Answer: 4%
Explanation: In Bulgaria, political parties must secure at least 4% of the national vote to enter parliament.

Q5. Repeated snap elections in a country generally indicate:
(a) Strong majority governments
(b) Stable coalition systems
(c) Fragmented party systems
(d) Presidential rule
Answer: Fragmented party systems
Explanation: Frequent elections often reflect political fragmentation, coalition failures and instability in forming durable governments.

Ministry of Defence Signs ₹2,312 Crore Contract with HAL for Dornier 228 Aircraft

Q1. The Ministry of Defence signed a ₹2,312 crore contract with which company for Dornier 228 aircraft?
(a) Bharat Electronics Limited
(b) DRDO
(c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(d) Larsen & Toubro
Answer: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Explanation: The contract was signed with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), a state-run aerospace company, for procurement of eight Dornier 228 aircraft.

Q2. How many Dornier 228 aircraft will be procured for the Indian Coast Guard under this agreement?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer: 8
Explanation: The agreement includes the supply of eight Dornier 228 aircraft to enhance the Indian Coast Guard’s surveillance and patrol capabilities.

Q3. The procurement has been executed under which defence acquisition category?
(a) Buy (Global)
(b) Buy and Make (Global)
(c) Buy (Indian)
(d) Strategic Partnership Model
Answer: Buy (Indian)
Explanation: The deal was executed under the “Buy (Indian)” category, which prioritises procurement from domestic manufacturers to promote self-reliance.

Q4. The Dornier 228 is mainly used for:
(a) Heavy cargo transport only
(b) Submarine warfare
(c) Maritime patrol and surveillance
(d) Space missions
Answer: Maritime patrol and surveillance
Explanation: Dornier 228 is a twin-turboprop aircraft used for maritime reconnaissance, coastal surveillance and search-and-rescue operations.

Q5. The Indian Coast Guard functions under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Shipping
(c) Ministry of Defence
(d) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: Ministry of Defence
Explanation: The Indian Coast Guard operates under the Ministry of Defence and plays a key role in maritime security and coastal protection.

India Establishes First Government-Supported National Biobank for Lysosomal Storage Disorders

Q1. India’s first national biobank dedicated to Lysosomal Storage Disorders (LSDs) has been funded by which organisation?
(a) ICMR
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
(d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Answer: Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
Explanation: The national biobank for LSDs has been funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Government of India to support rare disease research.

Q2. Lysosomal Storage Disorders (LSDs) are primarily caused by:
(a) Viral infections
(b) Hormonal imbalance
(c) Enzyme deficiencies
(d) Vitamin deficiency
Answer: Enzyme deficiencies
Explanation: LSDs are inherited metabolic disorders caused by the deficiency of specific enzymes, leading to accumulation of fats and sugars inside cells.

Q3. The national LSD biobank initiative is led by which institution?
(a) AIIMS, New Delhi
(b) Institute of Human Genetics, Ahmedabad
(c) Tata Memorial Hospital
(d) PGIMER, Chandigarh
Answer: Institute of Human Genetics, Ahmedabad
Explanation: The initiative is led by the Foundation for Research in Genetics and Endocrinology (FRIGE) at the Institute of Human Genetics, Ahmedabad.

Q4. Which of the following is a common Lysosomal Storage Disorder recorded in the biobank?
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Gaucher disease
(c) Hemophilia
(d) Sickle Cell Anaemia
Answer: Gaucher disease
Explanation: Gaucher disease is one of the most commonly recorded LSDs in the biobank cohort.

Q5. Stem cell-based disease models are mainly used to:
(a) Produce vaccines
(b) Replace damaged organs directly
(c) Study genetic disorders and test therapies
(d) Diagnose bacterial infections
Answer: Study genetic disorders and test therapies
Explanation: Stem cell-based disease models help researchers understand genetic disorders and develop potential therapeutic approaches.

India–Thailand Joint Air Exercise Enhances Defence Cooperation

Q1. The Indian Air Force conducted a joint air exercise with which country’s air force?
(a) Malaysia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Answer: Thailand
Explanation: The Indian Air Force undertook a joint in-situ air exercise with the Royal Thai Air Force to enhance operational coordination and interoperability.

Q2. Which frontline fighter aircraft of the IAF participated in the joint exercise?
(a) Tejas
(b) Rafale
(c) MiG-21
(d) Su-30MKI
Answer: Su-30MKI
Explanation: The Su-30MKI, a multirole fighter aircraft operated by the IAF, participated in the exercise alongside Thailand’s Gripen jets.

Q3. AWACS is primarily used for:
(a) Air-to-ground bombing
(b) Air refuelling
(c) Airborne surveillance and battle management
(d) Transport of troops
Answer: Airborne surveillance and battle management
Explanation: AWACS (Airborne Warning and Control System) provides airborne surveillance, command and control, and battle management capabilities.

Q4. India and Thailand signed their Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on Defence Cooperation in which year?
(a) 2008
(b) 2010
(c) 2012
(d) 2015
Answer: 2012
Explanation: The MoU on defence cooperation between India and Thailand was signed on 25 January 2012.

Q5. India’s ‘Act East Policy’ primarily focuses on strengthening relations with which region?
(a) Europe
(b) Middle East
(c) Southeast Asia
(d) Central Asia
Answer: Southeast Asia
Explanation: India’s Act East Policy aims to deepen economic, strategic and cultural ties with Southeast Asian nations, including Thailand.

BNP Victory in Bangladesh General Elections and Implications for India

Topic: BNP Victory in Bangladesh General Elections and Implications for India

Q1. Which political party has claimed victory in Bangladesh’s recent general elections?
(a) Awami League
(b) Jatiya Party
(c) Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP)
(d) Bangladesh Jamaat-e-Islami
Answer: Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP)
Explanation: The BNP has claimed a sweeping victory in the general elections, marking a major political shift after the removal of Sheikh Hasina.

Q2. Who is positioned to become the next Prime Minister of Bangladesh following the election results?
(a) Khaleda Zia
(b) Sheikh Hasina
(c) Tarique Rahman
(d) Muhammad Yunus
Answer: Tarique Rahman
Explanation: Tarique Rahman, a senior BNP leader, is positioned to become the next Prime Minister after leading the party to electoral victory.

Q3. What is the total length of the international border shared between India and Bangladesh?
(a) 3,488 km
(b) 4,096 km
(c) 2,980 km
(d) 5,210 km
Answer: 4,096 km
Explanation: India and Bangladesh share a 4,096-km-long international border, which is India’s longest land boundary with any country.

Q4. The Teesta River dispute between India and Bangladesh is mainly related to which issue?
(a) Hydropower generation
(b) Navigation rights
(c) Water-sharing agreement
(d) Fishing rights
Answer: Water-sharing agreement
Explanation: The Teesta River dispute concerns the sharing of river waters between India and Bangladesh, and it remains unresolved.

Q5. Bangladesh was created in which year after the Liberation War with India’s support?
(a) 1965
(b) 1971
(c) 1975
(d) 1982
Answer: 1971
Explanation: Bangladesh gained independence in 1971 after the Liberation War, with military and diplomatic support from India—an important historical fact for competitive exams.

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