12 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

12 February– Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)

• 1809 – Charles Darwin, English naturalist and author of On the Origin of Species, was born.
• 1809 – Abraham Lincoln, 16th President of the United States, was born.
• 1947 – Christian Dior introduced the famous “New Look”, revolutionizing modern fashion.
• 2002 – The International Criminal Court (ICC) was established.

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12 February 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

Sansha Yongle Blue Hole (Dragon Hole) – Deepest Blue Hole Studies

Q1. The Sansha Yongle Blue Hole, also known as the Dragon Hole, is located in which water body?
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) South China Sea
(d) Atlantic Ocean
Answer: South China Sea
Explanation: The Sansha Yongle Blue Hole is situated in the South China Sea and is one of the most scientifically studied blue holes in the world.

Q2. What is the officially confirmed depth of the Sansha Yongle (Dragon) Blue Hole?
(a) 280 metres
(b) 295 metres
(c) 301.19 metres
(d) 315 metres
Answer: 301.19 metres
Explanation: Advanced 3D mapping using a remotely operated vehicle confirmed the depth of the Dragon Hole as 301.19 metres.

Q3. Why was measuring the depth of the Dragon Hole technically challenging?
(a) Presence of strong ocean currents
(b) Extreme volcanic activity
(c) Its twisting, non-vertical structure
(d) Heavy marine life obstruction
Answer: Its twisting, non-vertical structure
Explanation: The blue hole bends and tilts as it descends, with the deepest point located far from the surface opening, making accurate measurement difficult.

Q4. Blue holes like the Dragon Hole are mainly formed in which type of rock?
(a) Basalt
(b) Granite
(c) Sandstone
(d) Limestone
Answer: Limestone
Explanation: Blue holes are underwater sinkholes formed primarily in carbonate rocks such as limestone through long-term erosion and sea-level changes.

Q5. What major chemical change is observed below about 100 metres inside the Dragon Hole?
(a) Sudden rise in salinity
(b) Complete freezing of water
(c) Sharp drop in oxygen with presence of hydrogen sulphide
(d) Increase in plankton density
Answer: Sharp drop in oxygen with presence of hydrogen sulphide
Explanation: Below 90–100 metres, oxygen levels fall sharply and hydrogen sulphide appears due to weak water circulation, preserving past environmental conditions.

Odisha CM Unveils Books by Former Governor Biswabhusan Harichandan

Q1. Who unveiled the two new books authored by Biswabhusan Harichandan in Bhubaneswar?
(a) Naveen Patnaik
(b) Mohan Charan Majhi
(c) Jitendra Singh
(d) Dharmendra Pradhan
Answer: Mohan Charan Majhi
Explanation: Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi unveiled the books at a ceremony held in Bhubaneswar.

Q2. Biswabhusan Harichandan was the founding president of which political party’s Odisha unit?
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Janata Dal
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party
(d) Biju Janata Dal
Answer: Bharatiya Janata Party
Explanation: Biswabhusan Harichandan served as the founding president of the BJP’s Odisha unit and held the position four times.

Q3. One of the released books focuses on Bakshi Jagabandhu, who led which historical uprising?
(a) Santhal Rebellion
(b) Sepoy Mutiny
(c) Paika Rebellion
(d) Indigo Revolt
Answer: Paika Rebellion
Explanation: Bakshi Jagabandhu led the Paika Rebellion of 1817 in Khordha, Odisha, considered an early war of independence.

Q4. The Paika Rebellion took place in which year and region?
(a) 1757, Bengal
(b) 1817, Khordha
(c) 1857, Meerut
(d) 1824, Assam
Answer: 1817, Khordha
Explanation: The Paika Rebellion occurred in 1817 in Khordha, Odisha, about 40 years before the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny.

Q5. The Odia book “E Mati Katha Kahe” mainly consists of which type of literary content?
(a) Poems on freedom struggle
(b) Short stories on rural life
(c) Essays on history, democracy and Odia identity
(d) Biographies of national leaders
Answer: Essays on history, democracy and Odia identity
Explanation: “E Mati Katha Kahe” contains 30 essays covering themes such as democracy, media, Odia identity, world peace and cultural traditions like Nabakalebara.

South Korea–US Joint Air Exercise “Buddy Squadron” at Osan Air Base

Q1. The joint aerial exercise “Buddy Squadron” is conducted between which two countries?
(a) Japan and South Korea
(b) United States and Japan
(c) South Korea and United States
(d) Australia and United States
Answer: South Korea and United States
Explanation: The “Buddy Squadron” exercise is a joint drill between the air forces of South Korea and the United States to strengthen defence cooperation.

Q2. At which air base is the Buddy Squadron exercise being held?
(a) Andersen Air Base
(b) Yokota Air Base
(c) Osan Air Base
(d) Kadena Air Base
Answer: Osan Air Base
Explanation: The exercise is taking place at Osan Air Base, which is located in Pyeongtaek, South Korea and is a key hub for allied air operations.

Q3. What is the main objective of the Buddy Squadron joint air exercise?
(a) Testing nuclear deterrence
(b) Enhancing interoperability and integrated tactical capabilities
(c) Training naval aviation forces
(d) Conducting humanitarian airlift missions
Answer: Enhancing interoperability and integrated tactical capabilities
Explanation: The drill focuses on improving coordination, communication and joint combat readiness between the two allied air forces.

Q4. Which generations of fighter aircraft are involved in the Buddy Squadron exercise?
(a) Only fourth-generation fighters
(b) Only fifth-generation fighters
(c) Third- and fourth-generation fighters
(d) Fourth- and fifth-generation fighters
Answer: Fourth- and fifth-generation fighters
Explanation: The exercise includes both fourth-generation jets like the F-16 and fifth-generation aircraft such as the F-35 to enable integrated training across platforms.

Q5. Why has the scale of the Buddy Squadron exercise been expanded this year?
(a) To support disaster relief operations
(b) To train new pilots
(c) To simulate realistic combat conditions and improve rapid response
(d) To reduce operational costs
Answer: To simulate realistic combat conditions and improve rapid response
Explanation: The increase in aircraft numbers and sortie frequency aims to enhance operational intensity, mission synchronisation and real-time coordination.

Global R&D Spending Trends 2024 – WIPO Report

Q1. According to the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO), global R&D expenditure reached approximately how much in 2024?
(a) $1.95 trillion
(b) $2.45 trillion
(c) $2.87 trillion
(d) $3.25 trillion
Answer: $2.87 trillion
Explanation: WIPO data shows that global research and development spending touched about $2.87 trillion in 2024, reflecting a nearly 3% annual increase.

Q2. Which region accounted for the largest share of global R&D spending in 2024?
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) Latin America
Answer: Asia
Explanation: Asia contributed around 45% of total global R&D expenditure, highlighting its growing dominance in global innovation.

Q3. Which country emerged as the world’s largest R&D spender in 2024?
(a) United States
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Germany
Answer: China
Explanation: China topped global R&D rankings with spending of $785.9 billion, making it the largest R&D investor worldwide in 2024.

Q4. What was India’s global rank in R&D expenditure in 2024?
(a) Fifth
(b) Sixth
(c) Seventh
(d) Tenth
Answer: Seventh
Explanation: India ranked seventh globally, with R&D spending of $75.73 billion, showing a more than threefold rise over the past two decades.

Q5. R&D intensity, an important exam concept, is usually measured in terms of:
(a) Share of population engaged in research
(b) Number of patents filed
(c) Percentage of GDP spent on R&D
(d) Total exports of technology goods
Answer: Percentage of GDP spent on R&D
Explanation: R&D intensity refers to research and development expenditure expressed as a percentage of a country’s GDP.

India’s Rifle Shooters Shine at Asian Rifle and Pistol Championship

Q1. Which medal did Anjum Moudgil win in the women’s 50m Rifle 3 Positions event?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) No medal
Answer: Bronze
Explanation: Anjum Moudgil finished third in the final and secured the bronze medal in the women’s 50m Rifle 3 Positions event.

Q2. What unusual mistake did Anjum Moudgil make during the qualification round?
(a) She missed the first series of shots
(b) She used the wrong rifle
(c) She fired match shots thinking they were sighters
(d) She exceeded the time limit
Answer: She fired match shots thinking they were sighters
Explanation: Anjum mistakenly fired eight match shots assuming they were sighter shots, but all of them scored perfect 10s.

Q3. Which shooter won her maiden international medal at this championship?
(a) Anjum Moudgil
(b) Ashi Chouksey
(c) Sofiya Shulzhenko
(d) Aakriti Dahiya
Answer: Aakriti Dahiya
Explanation: Aakriti Dahiya won silver, marking her first international podium finish in the 50m Rifle 3 Positions event.

Q4. The 50m Rifle 3 Positions event includes which of the following shooting stages?
(a) Standing, sitting and lying
(b) Prone, kneeling and standing
(c) Air rifle, prone and standing
(d) Kneeling, sitting and prone
Answer: Prone, kneeling and standing
Explanation: The event consists of three stages—kneeling, prone and standing—testing a shooter’s versatility and endurance.

Q5. Which organization governs international shooting competitions and sets the rules for events like 50m Rifle 3 Positions?
(a) IOC
(b) NRA
(c) ISSF
(d) Asian Shooting Federation
Answer: ISSF
Explanation: The International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) regulates international shooting events and recently revised the competition format.

Union Home Ministry Issues New Guidelines on ‘Vande Mataram’ (2026)

Q1. According to the latest Union Home Ministry guidelines, how many stanzas of ‘Vande Mataram’ must be sung at official functions?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
Answer: Six
Explanation: The guidelines mandate that all six stanzas of ‘Vande Mataram’ constitute the official version and must be sung at government and educational events.

Q2. What is the officially prescribed duration for the complete rendition of ‘Vande Mataram’?
(a) 2 minutes 30 seconds
(b) 2 minutes 50 seconds
(c) 3 minutes
(d) 3 minutes 10 seconds
Answer: 3 minutes 10 seconds
Explanation: The Home Ministry has fixed the duration of the full six-stanza version at 3 minutes and 10 seconds.

Q3. On which occasions is ‘Vande Mataram’ mandatorily played in the presence of the President of India?
(a) Only during Republic Day celebrations
(b) Only at award ceremonies
(c) On arrival and departure at official state functions
(d) Only during parliamentary sessions
Answer: On arrival and departure at official state functions
Explanation: The song must be played when the President arrives at and departs from official state functions, as well as during civilian award ceremonies.

Q4. Which of the following statements about the singing of ‘Vande Mataram’ in cinema halls is correct as per the guidelines?
(a) It is compulsory for all viewers to stand
(b) It is banned in cinema halls
(c) Standing is not compulsory if it appears as part of a film or newsreel
(d) It can only be played before the movie begins
Answer: Standing is not compulsory if it appears as part of a film or newsreel
Explanation: The guidelines exempt cinema halls from mandatory standing when the song is part of a film or newsreel to avoid disturbance and obstruction.

Q5. ‘Vande Mataram’ was first published in which literary work by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee?
(a) Durgeshnandini
(b) Kapalkundala
(c) Anandamath
(d) Krishnakanter Will
Answer: Anandamath
Explanation: ‘Vande Mataram’ was first published in Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s novel Anandamath in 1882, a key fact for competitive exams.

Mumbai Launches India’s First “Musical Road” on Coastal Road

Q1. Mumbai’s first “musical road” has been introduced on which corridor?
(a) Eastern Freeway
(b) Bandra–Worli Sea Link
(c) Mumbai Coastal Road
(d) Western Express Highway
Answer: Mumbai Coastal Road
Explanation: The musical road feature has been installed on the Mumbai Coastal Road as a novelty-cum-road-safety initiative.

Q2. The musical stretch is located on which direction and section of the Coastal Road?
(a) Southbound lane from Worli to Nariman Point
(b) Northbound lane from Nariman Point towards Worli
(c) Eastbound tunnel section near Malabar Hill
(d) Westbound sea-facing stretch near Bandra
Answer: Northbound lane from Nariman Point towards Worli
Explanation: The musical road lies on the northbound lane, beginning after vehicles exit the Worli tunnel while travelling from Nariman Point towards Worli.

Q3. Which song is played when vehicles pass over the musical road at the prescribed speed?
(a) Maa Tujhe Salaam
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Jai Ho
(d) Yeh Jo Des Hai Tera
Answer: Jai Ho
Explanation: The tune produced by the rumble strips is ‘Jai Ho’, the Academy Award–winning song from Slumdog Millionaire.

Q4. The musical effect on the road is produced using which road-safety feature?
(a) Speed breakers
(b) Reflective studs
(c) Rumble strips
(d) Smart traffic sensors
Answer: Rumble strips
Explanation: Precisely placed rumble strips create sound and vibration when tyres pass over them, producing music at a specific speed.

Q5. At approximately what speed does the tune become most recognisable on Mumbai’s musical road?
(a) 40–50 kmph
(b) 50–60 kmph
(c) 60–70 kmph
(d) 70–80 kmph
Answer: 70–80 kmph
Explanation: The grooves are engineered so that the tune is clearly heard when vehicles maintain a steady speed of around 70–80 kmph.

Delhi Government Launches ‘Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana’ for Girls’ Education

Q1. The Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana has been launched by which government?
(a) Government of India
(b) Delhi Government
(c) Haryana Government
(d) Uttar Pradesh Government
Answer: Delhi Government
Explanation: The Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana has been announced by the Delhi government to support girls from economically weaker families.

Q2. From which date is the Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana scheduled to come into effect?
(a) January 1, 2026
(b) February 6, 2026
(c) April 1, 2026
(d) July 1, 2026
Answer: April 1, 2026
Explanation: The scheme is set to begin from April 1, 2026, marking the start of its implementation.

Q3. What is the total deposited amount under the Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana before interest?
(a) ₹50,000
(b) ₹56,000
(c) ₹75,000
(d) ₹1,00,000
Answer: ₹56,000
Explanation: The scheme provides phased deposits amounting to ₹56,000, which is expected to grow to around ₹1 lakh with interest.

Q4. When can the beneficiary access the final matured amount under the scheme?
(a) On completing Class 12
(b) On turning 18 years of age
(c) On marriage
(d) On turning 21 or completing graduation/diploma, whichever is earlier
Answer: On turning 21 or completing graduation/diploma, whichever is earlier
Explanation: The maturity condition is linked to either reaching 21 years of age or completing higher education, encouraging continued schooling.

Q5. Which of the following is a key eligibility condition for the Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana?
(a) Family income below ₹2 lakh per year
(b) Benefit available for unlimited daughters
(c) Girl must be born outside Delhi
(d) Annual family income not exceeding ₹1 lakh
Answer: Annual family income not exceeding ₹1 lakh
Explanation: The scheme targets economically weaker families, with eligibility restricted to households having an annual income of up to ₹1 lakh.

Delhi Metro Magenta Line to Become Longest Corridor After Phase-IV & Phase-V (A)

Q1. After the completion of Phase-IV and Phase-V (A), which Delhi Metro line will become the longest corridor in the network?
(a) Blue Line
(b) Yellow Line
(c) Pink Line
(d) Magenta Line
Answer: Magenta Line
Explanation: The Magenta Line (Line-8) will become the longest Delhi Metro corridor after the approved Phase-IV and Phase-V (A) extensions.

Q2. What will be the approximate total length of the Magenta Line after full expansion?
(a) 72 km
(b) 81 km
(c) 89 km
(d) 95 km
Answer: 89 km
Explanation: Once extended from Botanical Garden to Inderlok, the Magenta Line will span about 89 kilometres, the longest in the network.

Q3. After expansion, how many interchange stations will the Magenta Line have?
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 19
(d) 21
Answer: 21
Explanation: The expanded Magenta Line will have 21 interchange stations, the highest number for any Delhi Metro corridor.

Q4. Which of the following stations will become a triple interchange hub on the Magenta Line?
(a) Hauz Khas
(b) Janakpuri West
(c) Central Secretariat
(d) Botanical Garden
Answer: Central Secretariat
Explanation: Central Secretariat will be a triple interchange station, connecting three different Metro lines after the expansion.

Q5. Which technology will enable the entire Magenta Line to operate as a driverless Metro corridor?
(a) Automatic Train Protection (ATP)
(b) European Train Control System (ETCS)
(c) Communication-Based Train Control (CBTC)
(d) Positive Train Control (PTC)
Answer: Communication-Based Train Control (CBTC)
Explanation: Driverless operations on the Magenta Line will be enabled through CBTC technology, a key feature of modern Metro systems.

India Reaffirms Ban on E-Cigarettes and Heated Tobacco Products

Q1. Which year did India impose a nationwide ban on e-cigarettes and heated tobacco products?
(a) 2017
(b) 2018
(c) 2019
(d) 2021
Answer: 2019
Explanation: India imposed a nationwide ban on e-cigarettes and heated tobacco products in 2019 under a central law to strengthen tobacco control.

Q2. Which global tobacco company sought relaxation of India’s ban to introduce its heated tobacco device IQOS?
(a) British American Tobacco
(b) Japan Tobacco International
(c) Philip Morris International
(d) Imperial Brands
Answer: Philip Morris International
Explanation: Philip Morris International, maker of Marlboro cigarettes, lobbied Indian authorities to reconsider the ban to allow products like IQOS.

Q3. What is the basic working principle of heat-not-burn tobacco devices?
(a) They vaporise nicotine liquid
(b) They burn tobacco at high temperature
(c) They heat processed tobacco without burning it
(d) They use herbal substitutes instead of tobacco
Answer: They heat processed tobacco without burning it
Explanation: Heat-not-burn devices heat tobacco rather than combust it, which companies claim reduces harm compared to smoking.

Q4. Which international body has cautioned against the health risks of heated tobacco products?
(a) World Bank
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) World Health Organization
(d) International Labour Organization
Answer: World Health Organization
Explanation: The WHO has warned that heated tobacco products may still pose health risks and supports strong tobacco control measures.

Q5. Tobacco control in India is mainly governed under which law?
(a) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
(b) Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA), 2003
(c) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
(d) Environment Protection Act, 1986
Answer: Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA), 2003
Explanation: COTPA, 2003 provides the legal framework for regulating tobacco products in India, along with later bans and rules.

NATO Launches ‘Arctic Sentry’ Initiative to Strengthen Security in the High North

Q1. What is ‘Arctic Sentry’ as unveiled by NATO?
(a) A permanent NATO military base in the Arctic
(b) A new standing NATO combat force
(c) A coordination framework for Arctic military exercises
(d) A joint Arctic naval command
Answer: A coordination framework for Arctic military exercises
Explanation: Arctic Sentry is not a permanent force; it acts as an umbrella framework to coordinate existing national military drills conducted by NATO members in the Arctic region.

Q2. Which NATO command will oversee the Arctic Sentry initiative?
(a) Allied Command Operations, Belgium
(b) NATO Joint Force Command, Norfolk
(c) Supreme Headquarters Allied Powers Europe (SHAPE)
(d) Allied Maritime Command, UK
Answer: NATO Joint Force Command, Norfolk
Explanation: The Arctic Sentry initiative will be overseen by NATO’s Joint Force Command located in Norfolk, Virginia.

Q3. Which of the following military exercises are brought under the Arctic Sentry framework?
(a) Red Flag and RIMPAC
(b) Malabar and Varuna
(c) Arctic Endurance and Cold Response
(d) Sea Breeze and Defender Europe
Answer: Arctic Endurance and Cold Response
Explanation: Denmark’s Arctic Endurance and Norway’s Cold Response exercises are among the drills coordinated under Arctic Sentry.

Q4. Why has the Arctic region gained strategic importance in recent years?
(a) Rise of space-based weapons
(b) Increase in terrorist activities
(c) Melting sea ice opening new sea routes and resources
(d) Decline in global trade routes
Answer: Melting sea ice opening new sea routes and resources
Explanation: Climate change has reduced Arctic ice cover, opening new maritime routes and access to natural resources, increasing geopolitical competition.

Q5. Which statement about NATO and the Arctic is correct?
(a) Only three NATO members have Arctic territory
(b) Greenland is an independent NATO member
(c) China is a formal Arctic NATO ally
(d) Seven NATO members have territory in the Arctic
Answer: Seven NATO members have territory in the Arctic
Explanation: Seven NATO allies possess territory within the Arctic Circle, making the region vital to the alliance’s collective defence strategy.

Puducherry Doctors Selected for Chang-Crandall Humanitarian Award 2026

Q1. Which two ophthalmologists from India were selected for the Chang-Crandall Humanitarian Award 2026?
(a) Dr Nitin Gadkari and Dr Jitendra Singh
(b) Dr Haripriya Aravind and Dr R Venkatesh
(c) Dr Soumya Swaminathan and Dr Randeep Guleria
(d) Dr Devi Shetty and Dr P Raghu
Answer: Dr Haripriya Aravind and Dr R Venkatesh
Explanation: The award was conferred on Dr Haripriya Aravind and Dr R Venkatesh of the Aravind Eye Care System for their humanitarian work in cataract care.

Q2. The Chang-Crandall Humanitarian Award is associated with which organisation?
(a) World Health Organization (WHO)
(b) International Agency for the Prevention of Blindness
(c) ASCRS Foundation
(d) Indian Medical Association
Answer: ASCRS Foundation
Explanation: The Chang-Crandall Humanitarian Award was instituted in 2017 by the American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (ASCRS) Foundation.

Q3. What is the prize amount associated with the Chang-Crandall Humanitarian Award?
(a) $25,000
(b) $50,000
(c) $75,000
(d) $100,000
Answer: $100,000
Explanation: The award carries a grant of $100,000, which the recipients chose to donate to the Aravind Eye Care System.

Q4. Which surgical technique is strongly associated with Dr R Venkatesh’s work in high-volume cataract care?
(a) LASIK surgery
(b) Phacoemulsification
(c) Manual Small Incision Cataract Surgery (MSICS)
(d) Corneal transplant
Answer: Manual Small Incision Cataract Surgery (MSICS)
Explanation: Dr Venkatesh has extensive experience in MSICS, a cost-effective technique widely used in large-scale cataract outreach programmes.

Q5. Why is the Chang-Crandall Humanitarian Award significant in global health?
(a) Cataract blindness is incurable
(b) Cataract is the leading cause of blindness worldwide
(c) Eye care is limited to developed countries
(d) Cataract surgery is experimental
Answer: Cataract is the leading cause of blindness worldwide
Explanation: Cataract remains the top cause of global blindness, and the award recognises efforts that expand access to affordable and effective surgical treatment.

Goa to Get Its First Biodiversity and Cultural Features Map by WWF India

Q1. Who has developed Goa’s first biodiversity and cultural features map for schoolchildren?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Goa Forest Department
(c) WWF India
(d) NCERT
Answer: WWF India
Explanation: The biodiversity and cultural features map has been developed by WWF India to promote environmental awareness among schoolchildren in Goa.

Q2. How many commonly found species are highlighted in the WWF India–Goa biodiversity map?
(a) 25
(b) 36
(c) 48
(d) 60
Answer: 48
Explanation: The map visually presents 48 commonly found species, including birds, mammals, reptiles, marine animals, mangroves and insects found in Goa.

Q3. Where will the biodiversity and cultural features map be officially released?
(a) International Film Festival of India
(b) Goa Art and Literature Festival
(c) National Science Congress
(d) Goa State Biodiversity Board meeting
Answer: Goa Art and Literature Festival
Explanation: The map is scheduled to be released at the Goa Art and Literature Festival and will be distributed free to schools.

Q4. The biodiversity map initiative aligns with which national policy emphasising experiential learning?
(a) National Forest Policy
(b) National Biodiversity Action Plan
(c) National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
(d) National Curriculum Framework
Answer: National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
Explanation: NEP 2020 promotes experiential and vocational learning, and the biodiversity map supports this approach by acting as a practical classroom learning tool.

Q5. Which of the following cultural elements is featured on the Goa biodiversity and cultural map?
(a) Warli painting
(b) Yakshagana
(c) Kaavi art
(d) Pattachitra
Answer: Kaavi art
Explanation: The map includes Kaavi art, a traditional Goan mural art form, along with other cultural elements to link biodiversity with local cultural identity.

Centre Launches White Revolution 2.0 to Strengthen Cooperative Dairy Sector

Q1. What is the main objective of “White Revolution 2.0” launched by the Centre?
(a) Privatisation of the dairy sector
(b) Reducing milk production
(c) Expanding cooperative-led dairy coverage and milk procurement
(d) Promoting dairy imports
Answer: Expanding cooperative-led dairy coverage and milk procurement
Explanation: White Revolution 2.0 is a cooperative-led initiative aimed at expanding dairy coverage, increasing milk procurement and strengthening farmers’ participation in the organised dairy sector.

Q2. By 2028–29, what is the target daily milk procurement under White Revolution 2.0?
(a) 750 lakh kg
(b) 900 lakh kg
(c) 1,007 lakh kg
(d) 1,200 lakh kg
Answer: 1,007 lakh kg
Explanation: The programme aims to raise daily milk procurement by dairy cooperatives to 1,007 lakh kg by 2028–29, marking a 50% increase over current levels.

Q3. How many new Dairy Cooperative Societies (DCS) are proposed to be established under White Revolution 2.0?
(a) 25,000
(b) 50,000
(c) 75,000
(d) 1,00,000
Answer: 75,000
Explanation: Around 75,000 new Dairy Cooperative Societies will be set up in uncovered panchayats and villages to expand cooperative coverage.

Q4. White Revolution 2.0 is funded under which government programme?
(a) Rashtriya Gokul Mission
(b) National Livestock Mission
(c) National Dairy Development Programme 2.0
(d) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
Answer: National Dairy Development Programme 2.0
Explanation: The initiative is funded under the National Dairy Development Programme 2.0 (NPDD 2.0) of the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying.

Q5. Why does White Revolution 2.0 place special emphasis on women’s empowerment?
(a) Women dominate dairy exports
(b) Nearly 70% of the dairy workforce consists of women
(c) Women own most dairy cooperatives
(d) Women receive higher milk prices
Answer: Nearly 70% of the dairy workforce consists of women
Explanation: Women perform most dairy-related activities, and the programme aims to formalise their participation through cooperatives to promote economic and social empowerment.

National Productivity Council to Observe 68th Foundation Day & National Productivity Week 2026

Q1. When will the National Productivity Council (NPC) celebrate its 68th Foundation Day?
(a) 10 February 2026
(b) 11 February 2026
(c) 12 February 2026
(d) 15 February 2026
Answer: 12 February 2026
Explanation: The National Productivity Council will mark its 68th Foundation Day on 12 February 2026.

Q2. National Productivity Week 2026 will be observed during which period?
(a) 1–7 February
(b) 10–16 February
(c) 12–18 February
(d) 15–21 February
Answer: 12–18 February
Explanation: National Productivity Week will be observed across India from 12 to 18 February 2026.

Q3. What is the theme of National Productivity Week 2026?
(a) Make in India for Global Markets
(b) MSMEs: Backbone of the Indian Economy
(c) Clusters as Growth Engine: Maximizing Productivity in MSMEs
(d) Sustainable Manufacturing through Innovation
Answer: Clusters as Growth Engine: Maximizing Productivity in MSMEs
Explanation: The 2026 theme focuses on cluster-based development to enhance productivity and competitiveness of MSMEs.

Q4. Under which ministry does the National Productivity Council function?
(a) Ministry of Heavy Industries
(b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(c) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Explanation: NPC functions as an autonomous society under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Q5. The National Productivity Council is a constituent member of which international organisation?
(a) International Labour Organization (ILO)
(b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(c) Asian Productivity Organisation (APO)
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)
Answer: Asian Productivity Organisation (APO)
Explanation: NPC is a constituent of the Tokyo-based Asian Productivity Organisation (APO), of which India is a founding member and current Chair.

Balaghat Chosen as Pilot District under World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan (WLGSP)

Q1. Which district has been selected as the pilot district under the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector (WLGSP)?
(a) Sehore
(b) Balaghat
(c) Mandla
(d) Chhindwara
Answer: Balaghat
Explanation: Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh has been selected as the pilot district for implementing the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector.

Q2. At which level does the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan mainly aim to decentralise grain storage infrastructure?
(a) State Warehousing Corporations
(b) FCI godowns
(c) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
(d) Private cold storage units
Answer: Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
Explanation: The plan focuses on decentralising grain storage by creating storage infrastructure at the PACS level to benefit farmers directly.

Q3. The pilot godown constructed in Balaghat district has a storage capacity of how much?
(a) 250 metric tonnes
(b) 300 metric tonnes
(c) 500 metric tonnes
(d) 1,000 metric tonnes
Answer: 500 metric tonnes
Explanation: A 500 MT godown was constructed at the PACS in Parswada village as part of the pilot project.

Q4. Which of the following schemes provides interest subvention to PACS for constructing godowns under WLGSP?
(a) PMFBY
(b) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
(c) Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)
(d) National Food Security Mission
Answer: Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)
Explanation: Under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund, PACS receive interest subvention on loans taken for constructing grain storage godowns.

Q5. What is the revised subsidy rate for PACS under the Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure (AMI) scheme?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 33.33%
Answer: 33.33%
Explanation: The subsidy for PACS under the AMI scheme has been enhanced from 25% to 33.33% to encourage cooperative participation in storage infrastructure.

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