10 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

10 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

1863 – London Underground opened

On 10 January 1863, the London Underground started operation.
It was the world’s first underground railway system and marked a major development in urban transport.

1920 – League of Nations came into force

On this day, the League of Nations officially came into force.
It was formed after World War I to maintain international peace and prevent future wars.

1946 – First United Nations General Assembly meeting

On 10 January 1946, the first session of the United Nations General Assembly was held in London.
This meeting marked the beginning of the United Nations’ work as a global organization.

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10 January 2026 Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test

National IED Data Management System (NIDMS) Launched to Strengthen Counter-Terror Framework

Q1. Who is set to virtually inaugurate the National IED Data Management System (NIDMS)?
(a) Defence Minister of India
(b) Union Home Minister
(c) National Security Advisor
(d) Director General of NSG
Answer: Union Home Minister
Explanation: The National IED Data Management System (NIDMS) will be virtually inaugurated by the Union Home Minister, highlighting its importance in India’s internal security framework.

Q2. NIDMS has been developed by which organisation?
(a) DRDO
(b) IB
(c) National Bomb Data Centre under NSG
(d) NIA
Answer: National Bomb Data Centre under NSG
Explanation: The platform has been developed by the National Bomb Data Centre, which functions under the National Security Guard (NSG).

Q3. What is the primary purpose of the National IED Data Management System (NIDMS)?
(a) Training bomb disposal squads
(b) Monitoring border infiltration
(c) Storage and analysis of IED-related data
(d) Surveillance of terror financing
Answer: Storage and analysis of IED-related data
Explanation: NIDMS is a secure digital platform for systematic storage, collation, sharing and analysis of IED-related information to support post-blast investigations.

Q4. NIDMS is expected to improve coordination among which of the following agencies?
(a) Only state police forces
(b) Only central armed police forces
(c) State police, CAPFs and central agencies
(d) Armed forces and state governments
Answer: State police, CAPFs and central agencies
Explanation: The platform enables data sharing among state police, Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) and central agencies, improving inter-agency coordination.

Q5. The National Security Guard (NSG) functions under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Law and Justice
(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: The NSG, raised in 1984 and known for its ‘Black Cat’ commandos, operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs and plays a key role in counter-terrorism operations.

Chile Supports India’s Bid for Permanent Membership of the UN Security Council

Q1. Which country has recently expressed support for India’s aspiration to become a permanent member of the UNSC?
(a) Argentina
(b) Mexico
(c) Chile
(d) Peru
Answer: Chile
Explanation: Chile has formally endorsed India’s bid for permanent membership of the United Nations Security Council, stating that India can play a stabilising role in global affairs.

Q2. Who is the current Ambassador of Chile to India who highlighted the need for UNSC reforms?
(a) Pablo Neruda
(b) Juan Angulo
(c) Ricardo Lagos
(d) Andrés Allamand
Answer: Juan Angulo
Explanation: Chile’s Ambassador to India, Juan Angulo, spoke about the need for comprehensive reforms in the UNSC to reflect present-day geopolitical realities.

Q3. According to Chile, why is reform of the UNSC necessary?
(a) To increase the number of peacekeeping missions
(b) To reflect post–Second World War power structures
(c) To make the UNSC more functional and representative of current realities
(d) To reduce the veto power of permanent members
Answer: To make the UNSC more functional and representative of current realities
Explanation: Chile believes the UNSC should no longer mirror the power structure of the post–World War II era and must evolve to remain transparent, accountable, and effective.

Q4. Which of the following strengthens India’s claim for permanent UNSC membership?
(a) Large population and economic growth
(b) Contributions to UN peacekeeping
(c) Commitment to multilateralism
(d) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Explanation: India’s population size, growing economy, major role in UN peacekeeping, and support for multilateralism collectively strengthen its case for permanent UNSC membership.

Q5. How many permanent members currently exist in the United Nations Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Answer: Five
Explanation: The UNSC has five permanent members—United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom—each with veto power, a key fact often asked in competitive exams.

India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves Decline Sharply – RBI Data

Q1. By how much did India’s foreign exchange reserves decline in the week ended January 2, as per RBI data?
(a) USD 3.293 billion
(b) USD 7.622 billion
(c) USD 9.809 billion
(d) USD 11.262 billion
Answer: USD 9.809 billion
Explanation: India’s forex reserves fell sharply by USD 9.809 billion to USD 686.801 billion during the reported week, according to the Reserve Bank of India.

Q2. Which component is the largest part of India’s foreign exchange reserves?
(a) Gold reserves
(b) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
(c) IMF reserve position
(d) Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs)
Answer: Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs)
Explanation: Foreign Currency Assets form the biggest share of India’s forex reserves and are affected by capital flows as well as currency valuation changes.

Q3. What was the level of India’s Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs) after the reported decline?
(a) USD 686.801 billion
(b) USD 551.99 billion
(c) USD 111.262 billion
(d) USD 18.778 billion
Answer: USD 551.99 billion
Explanation: FCAs declined by USD 7.622 billion and stood at USD 551.99 billion during the reporting week.

Q4. Which of the following currencies’ movements impact the valuation of India’s Foreign Currency Assets?
(a) Euro, Pound Sterling, and Japanese Yen
(b) Chinese Yuan and Russian Rouble
(c) Australian Dollar and Canadian Dollar
(d) Swiss Franc and Singapore Dollar
Answer: Euro, Pound Sterling, and Japanese Yen
Explanation: Changes in major non-US currencies like the euro, pound sterling, and Japanese yen against the US dollar affect the valuation of FCAs.

Q5. Which authority uses foreign exchange reserves to manage volatility in the rupee?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) SEBI
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer: Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: The RBI actively uses forex reserves to manage exchange rate volatility and ensure orderly movement in the foreign exchange market.

Spina Bifida – India’s Most Common but Preventable Birth Defect

Q1. Spina Bifida is best described as which of the following conditions?
(a) A genetic blood disorder
(b) A congenital defect of the spinal cord
(c) A childhood infectious disease
(d) A hormonal disorder
Answer: A congenital defect of the spinal cord
Explanation: Spina Bifida is a birth defect in which the spinal cord does not develop properly, leading to paralysis and other physical complications.

Q2. Approximately how many children are born with Spina Bifida every year in India?
(a) About 5,000
(b) About 10,000
(c) About 15,000
(d) More than 25,000
Answer: More than 25,000
Explanation: India records over 25,000 births with Spina Bifida annually, making it one of the countries with the highest global burden of this condition.

Q3. Which nutrient intake before conception can prevent over 70% of Spina Bifida cases?
(a) Iron
(b) Calcium
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Folic acid
Answer: Folic acid
Explanation: Research, including the Medical Research Council Vitamin Study published in The Lancet, shows that pre-conceptional folic acid intake can prevent more than 70% of Spina Bifida cases.

Q4. Which of the following statements about Spina Bifida is correct?
(a) It always affects intelligence
(b) It cannot be treated surgically
(c) It does not affect intelligence
(d) It is always fatal in childhood
Answer: It does not affect intelligence
Explanation: Spina Bifida affects physical mobility but does not impact intelligence, and with timely medical care, children can lead independent lives.

Q5. What is a key reason why Spina Bifida remains a major public health issue in India?
(a) Lack of medical research
(b) High cost of folic acid
(c) Absence of awareness and food fortification policies
(d) Non-availability of doctors
Answer: Absence of awareness and food fortification policies
Explanation: Despite being largely preventable, India lacks widespread awareness campaigns and mandatory folic acid food fortification, unlike many other countries.

World Hindi Day 2026 – Date, Significance and Global Relevance

Q1. When will World Hindi Day 2026 be observed?
(a) January 9
(b) January 10
(c) September 14
(d) October 2
Answer: January 10
Explanation: World Hindi Day is observed every year on January 10 to recognise the global presence and importance of the Hindi language.

Q2. World Hindi Day commemorates which historic event?
(a) Adoption of Hindi as India’s official language
(b) Formation of the Hindi Sahitya Sammelan
(c) First World Hindi Conference held in 1975
(d) Launch of Hindi broadcasting on All India Radio
Answer: First World Hindi Conference held in 1975
Explanation: The day marks the first World Hindi Conference, which was held in Nagpur in 1975 to promote Hindi at the international level.

Q3. World Hindi Day is mainly observed through which institutions?
(a) Schools and colleges in India
(b) State language academies
(c) Indian embassies and diplomatic missions abroad
(d) Private cultural organisations
Answer: Indian embassies and diplomatic missions abroad
Explanation: The Government of India observes World Hindi Day mainly through Indian embassies and missions overseas, highlighting its international focus.

Q4. How is World Hindi Day different from Hindi Diwas?
(a) World Hindi Day is a national celebration
(b) Hindi Diwas focuses on Hindi outside India
(c) World Hindi Day focuses on Hindi’s global presence
(d) Both are observed on the same date
Answer: World Hindi Day focuses on Hindi’s global presence
Explanation: Hindi Diwas (September 14) is a domestic observance, while World Hindi Day highlights the international spread and relevance of Hindi.

Q5. Hindi Diwas is observed on September 14 to mark which event?
(a) First Hindi newspaper publication
(b) Adoption of Hindi in Devanagari script as an official language in 1949
(c) First World Hindi Conference
(d) Establishment of the Official Language Commission
Answer: Adoption of Hindi in Devanagari script as an official language in 1949
Explanation: Hindi Diwas commemorates the adoption of Hindi in the Devanagari script as an official language of India under the Constitution.

Gujarat Launches ‘Asha Van’ Mobile Cancer Screening Unit

Q1. Who inaugurated the mobile cancer screening unit ‘Asha Van’ in Gujarat?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Mansukh Mandaviya
(c) Bhupendra Patel
(d) Vijay Rupani
Answer: Bhupendra Patel
Explanation: Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel inaugurated the mobile cancer screening unit ‘Asha Van’ in Gandhinagar.

Q2. What is the primary objective of the ‘Asha Van’ initiative?
(a) Providing free cancer medicines
(b) Training doctors in oncology
(c) Early detection and diagnosis of cancer
(d) Conducting medical research
Answer: Early detection and diagnosis of cancer
Explanation: The main aim of ‘Asha Van’ is early detection and diagnosis of cancer, especially in rural and underserved areas.

Q3. Which of the following facilities is available in the ‘Asha Van’ mobile unit?
(a) Dialysis unit
(b) Mammography unit and teleconsultation
(c) Organ transplant facility
(d) Intensive care unit
Answer: Mammography unit and teleconsultation
Explanation: The mobile unit is equipped with advanced diagnostics, including mammography and expert teleconsultation facilities.

Q4. ‘Asha Van’ has been handed over for public service to which organisation?
(a) National Health Mission
(b) AIIMS Ahmedabad
(c) Gujarat Health Department
(d) Indian Red Cross Society
Answer: Indian Red Cross Society
Explanation: The Asha Van mobile unit has been handed over to the Bhavnagar branch of the Indian Red Cross Society for public health outreach.

Q5. The ‘Asha Van’ initiative mainly supports which broader healthcare approach?
(a) Curative-only healthcare
(b) Preventive healthcare and rural medical access
(c) Emergency trauma care
(d) Insurance-based healthcare
Answer: Preventive healthcare and rural medical access
Explanation: By enabling early cancer screening in rural areas, ‘Asha Van’ strengthens preventive healthcare and improves access to specialised medical services.

Third International Conference on Indian Languages and India’s Linguistic Heritage

Q1. Who inaugurated the Third International Conference on Indian Languages in New Delhi?
(a) Droupadi Murmu
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) C. P. Radhakrishnan
(d) Jagdeep Dhankhar
Answer: C. P. Radhakrishnan
Explanation: The Third International Conference on Indian Languages was inaugurated by the Vice-President of India, C. P. Radhakrishnan, highlighting the civilisational and democratic relevance of Indian languages.

Q2. According to the Vice-President, language primarily represents what aspect of civilisation?
(a) Political authority
(b) Economic power
(c) Conscience of civilisation
(d) Administrative structure
Answer: Conscience of civilisation
Explanation: He described language as the conscience of civilisation, preserving collective memory, knowledge systems, values, and traditions across generations.

Q3. Which ancient source was highlighted as evidence of India’s rich multilingual knowledge tradition?
(a) Rock paintings
(b) Copper plates
(c) Palm-leaf manuscripts
(d) Cave murals
Answer: Palm-leaf manuscripts
Explanation: The Vice-President referred to palm-leaf manuscripts as enduring records of India’s ancient knowledge in philosophy, science, medicine, and ethics.

Q4. A translated copy of the Constitution of India was recently released in which language?
(a) Maithili
(b) Bodo
(c) Santali
(d) Kashmiri
Answer: Santali
Explanation: President Droupadi Murmu released a translated copy of the Constitution in the Santali language, marking an important step towards linguistic inclusion.

Q5. Which policy strongly promotes multilingual education in India?
(a) National Language Policy 2014
(b) New Education Framework 2018
(c) National Education Policy 2020
(d) Digital India Mission
Answer: National Education Policy 2020
Explanation: The National Education Policy 2020 encourages multilingual education and learning in mother tongues to strengthen linguistic and cultural roots.

UN Projects India’s Economic Growth at 7.2% for FY 2025–26

Q1. According to the United Nations report, what is India’s projected economic growth rate for FY 2025–26?
(a) 6.6 per cent
(b) 6.8 per cent
(c) 7.2 per cent
(d) 7.4 per cent
Answer: 7.2 per cent
Explanation: The United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA) projected India’s GDP growth at 7.2 per cent for the financial year 2025–26.

Q2. Which UN body released the World Economic Situation and Prospects 2026 report?
(a) UNDP
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) UNDESA
Answer: UNDESA
Explanation: The World Economic Situation and Prospects report is published by the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA).

Q3. Which two factors are expected to be the main drivers of India’s economic growth, according to the report?
(a) Exports and foreign investment
(b) Agriculture and mining
(c) Domestic consumption and public investment
(d) Tourism and remittances
Answer: Domestic consumption and public investment
Explanation: The report highlighted resilient household consumption and sustained public investment as the primary drivers supporting India’s growth.

Q4. The United States accounts for approximately what percentage of India’s total exports?
(a) 10 per cent
(b) 15 per cent
(c) 18 per cent
(d) 25 per cent
Answer: 18 per cent
Explanation: The UN report noted that the US accounts for around 18 per cent of India’s total exports, making US tariffs a key external risk.

Q5. Which of the following best describes “Gross Fixed Capital Formation”?
(a) Government revenue from taxes
(b) Household savings in banks
(c) Investment in physical assets like infrastructure
(d) Export earnings from goods and services
Answer: Investment in physical assets like infrastructure
Explanation: Gross Fixed Capital Formation represents investment in physical assets such as infrastructure, machinery, and equipment, and has been a key contributor to India’s growth.

Uttarakhand Tops ICJS 2.0 National Rankings and SDRF Earns National Recognition

Q1. Which state secured first position in the national ICJS 2.0 rankings?
(a) Haryana
(b) Assam
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: Uttarakhand
Explanation: Uttarakhand Police secured the top position in the ICJS 2.0 national rankings, highlighting its leadership in digital policing and criminal justice reforms.

Q2. What was Uttarakhand’s score in the ICJS 2.0 rankings as per the NCRB dashboard?
(a) 89.75
(b) 91.20
(c) 93.46
(d) 95.10
Answer: 93.46
Explanation: According to the CCTNS/ICJS Progress Dashboard released by NCRB, Uttarakhand scored 93.46, ranking first in the country.

Q3. Which organisation releases the CCTNS/ICJS Progress Dashboard?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) National Crime Records Bureau
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Central Bureau of Investigation
Answer: National Crime Records Bureau
Explanation: The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) releases the CCTNS/ICJS Progress Dashboard to track the implementation of ICJS across states.

Q4. ICJS 2.0 aims to integrate which of the following institutions into a single digital ecosystem?
(a) Police and banks only
(b) Courts and tax departments
(c) Police, courts, prisons, prosecution, and forensics
(d) Police and intelligence agencies
Answer: Police, courts, prisons, prosecution, and forensics
Explanation: ICJS 2.0 integrates police, courts, prosecution, prisons, forensics, and fingerprint databases to ensure seamless digital justice delivery.

Q5. Why was the Uttarakhand State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) awarded national recognition?
(a) Flood rescue operations in Uttarakhand
(b) Earthquake relief operations
(c) Service during Prayagraj Mahakumbh-2025
(d) Cyclone management on the east coast
Answer: Service during Prayagraj Mahakumbh-2025
Explanation: A 112-member SDRF team from Uttarakhand was deployed during Prayagraj Mahakumbh-2025, where it provided water rescue, first aid, and crowd management, earning medals and commendations.

India’s First Fully Paperless District Judiciary Inaugurated in Kalpetta, Kerala

Q1. Where was India’s first fully paperless district judiciary inaugurated?
(a) Kochi, Kerala
(b) Kalpetta, Wayanad
(c) Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
(d) Kozhikode, Kerala
Answer: Kalpetta, Wayanad
Explanation: Kalpetta in Wayanad district, Kerala, became the first district in India where the entire judiciary shifted to end-to-end digital functioning.

Q2. Who virtually inaugurated India’s first fully paperless district judiciary?
(a) Justice Vikram Nath
(b) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
(c) Justice Surya Kant
(d) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
Answer: Justice Surya Kant
Explanation: Chief Justice of India Surya Kant virtually inaugurated the paperless district judiciary, marking a milestone in judicial reform.

Q3. The District Court Case Management System used in Kalpetta was developed by which institution?
(a) Ministry of Law and Justice
(b) National Informatics Centre
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) Kerala High Court
Answer: Kerala High Court
Explanation: The District Court Case Management System was developed in-house by the Kerala High Court, without using external proprietary platforms.

Q4. Which technology helps in accurate transcription of witness depositions and judicial dictation in the digital courts?
(a) Facial recognition
(b) Blockchain
(c) Voice-to-text technology
(d) Optical character recognition
Answer: Voice-to-text technology
Explanation: Voice-to-text technology is used to ensure accurate transcription of witness statements and judicial dictation in the paperless court system.

Q5. The Chief Justice of India referred to the shift towards paperless courts as what?
(a) Digital federalism
(b) Smart judiciary
(c) Green jurisprudence
(d) Virtual justice
Answer: Green jurisprudence
Explanation: The CJI described the move as “green jurisprudence”, highlighting reduced paper usage, improved transparency, and environmentally sustainable justice delivery.

Poland Backs India Amid Russia Oil Tensions; India Engages Weimar Triangle for First Time

Q1. Which country expressed satisfaction over India’s reduction in Russian oil imports?
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Poland
(d) United States
Answer: Poland
Explanation: Poland stated that it was satisfied with India’s recent cutback in Russian oil imports, showing political support amid rising India–US tensions.

Q2. India participated for the first time in discussions under which diplomatic grouping?
(a) Quad
(b) G7
(c) BRICS
(d) Weimar Triangle
Answer: Weimar Triangle
Explanation: India took part in the Weimar Triangle format for the first time during talks held in Paris.

Q3. Which three countries form the Weimar Triangle grouping?
(a) France, Germany, Poland
(b) France, Italy, Spain
(c) Germany, Austria, Poland
(d) France, UK, Germany
Answer: France, Germany, Poland
Explanation: The Weimar Triangle was established in 1991 by France, Germany, and Poland to promote European integration and security cooperation.

Q4. Who represented India in the Weimar Triangle engagement held in Paris?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Rajnath Singh
(c) S. Jaishankar
(d) Ajit Doval
Answer: S. Jaishankar
Explanation: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar represented India during its first-ever engagement with the Weimar Triangle countries.

Q5. The current strain in India–US relations is mainly linked to India’s purchase of which commodity from Russia?
(a) Coal
(b) Natural gas
(c) Fertilisers
(d) Crude oil
Answer: Crude oil
Explanation: The United States has raised concerns and tariff threats over India’s continued purchase of Russian crude oil amid the Ukraine war.

Public Investment Board Clears Kamala Hydroelectric Project in Arunachal Pradesh

Q1. Which body approved the ₹26,070-crore Kamala Hydroelectric Project?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(c) Public Investment Board
(d) Central Electricity Authority
Answer: Public Investment Board
Explanation: The Public Investment Board (PIB) approved the Kamala Hydroelectric Project, marking a major step in India’s renewable energy expansion.

Q2. What is the installed capacity of the Kamala Hydroelectric Project?
(a) 1,200 MW
(b) 1,500 MW
(c) 1,620 MW
(d) 1,720 MW
Answer: 1,720 MW
Explanation: The Kamala Hydroelectric Project has an installed capacity of 1,720 MW, making it one of the major hydropower projects in the Northeast.

Q3. The Kamala Hydroelectric Project is proposed on which river?
(a) Subansiri River
(b) Siang River
(c) Kamala River
(d) Dibang River
Answer: Kamala River
Explanation: The project is proposed on the Kamala River and will be located across Kamle, Kra Daadi, and Kurung Kumey districts of Arunachal Pradesh.

Q4. Which organisation holds the majority equity stake in the Kamala Hydroelectric Project?
(a) Government of India
(b) Arunachal Pradesh Government
(c) NHPC
(d) Power Grid Corporation
Answer: NHPC
Explanation: NHPC will hold a 74 per cent equity stake in the project, while the Government of Arunachal Pradesh will hold the remaining 26 per cent.

Q5. Apart from power generation, what is a key additional benefit of the Kamala Hydroelectric Project?
(a) Irrigation support for coastal regions
(b) Flood moderation in downstream areas
(c) Desalination of river water
(d) Navigation development
Answer: Flood moderation in downstream areas
Explanation: Being a storage-based project, it includes a flood moderation component that will help regulate river flow and provide flood relief to downstream areas, especially the Brahmaputra Valley.

Two Indian Films Enter Best Picture Eligibility List for 98th Academy Awards

Q1. How many Indian films have entered the eligibility list for the Best Picture category at the 98th Academy Awards?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer: Two
Explanation: Two Indian films—Kantara: A Legend – Chapter 1 and Tanvi The Great—have qualified for consideration in the Best Picture category.

Q2. Which organisation releases the eligibility list for the Academy Awards?
(a) Cannes Film Festival Committee
(b) British Film Institute
(c) Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences
(d) Golden Globe Foundation
Answer: Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences
Explanation: The Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences (AMPAS) releases the official eligibility lists for Oscar categories.

Q3. Which of the following is a key requirement for Best Picture eligibility?
(a) Screening at international film festivals only
(b) Release on OTT platforms
(c) Theatrical run in at least 10 major US markets
(d) Government nomination from the home country
Answer: Theatrical run in at least 10 major US markets
Explanation: For Best Picture eligibility, films must complete a qualifying theatrical run in at least 10 of the top 50 US markets within the stipulated time.

Q4. What is the purpose of the RAISE form submitted to the Academy?
(a) To declare box office collections
(b) To assess representation and inclusion standards
(c) To verify copyright ownership
(d) To certify film language
Answer: To assess representation and inclusion standards
Explanation: The RAISE (Representation and Inclusion Standards Entry) form evaluates whether films meet AMPAS inclusion and diversity standards.

Q5. Kantara: A Legend – Chapter 1 explores the origins of which cultural tradition?
(a) Bhakti movement
(b) Sufi tradition
(c) Daiva worship in Tulunadu
(d) Buddhist monastic culture
Answer: Daiva worship in Tulunadu
Explanation: Kantara: Chapter 1 traces the origins of Daiva worship in Tulunadu, with historical references linked to the Kadamba dynasty.

Ceasefire Announced in Aleppo After Clashes Between Syrian Government and Kurdish Forces

Q1. Which city witnessed intense clashes leading to the announcement of a ceasefire by the Syrian government?
(a) Damascus
(b) Homs
(c) Aleppo
(d) Raqqa
Answer: Aleppo
Explanation: The ceasefire was announced after heavy fighting in Aleppo, a long-standing flashpoint between Syrian government forces and Kurdish groups.

Q2. The clashes in Aleppo displaced approximately how many civilians within three days?
(a) 50,000
(b) 80,000
(c) 1 lakh
(d) 1.4 lakh
Answer: 1.4 lakh
Explanation: More than 140,000 civilians were displaced due to the fighting, making it one of the most serious flare-ups in recent months.

Q3. Kurdish fighters were expected to withdraw from which of the following areas under the ceasefire terms?
(a) Raqqa and Deir ez-Zor
(b) Sheikh Maqsoud, Ashrafieh, and Bani Zaid
(c) Idlib and Latakia
(d) Hasakah and Qamishli
Answer: Sheikh Maqsoud, Ashrafieh, and Bani Zaid
Explanation: The ceasefire terms required Kurdish fighters to withdraw from these contested neighbourhoods in Aleppo with safe passage offered towards north-eastern Syria.

Q4. Which force controls north-eastern Syria where safe passage was reportedly offered?
(a) Syrian Arab Army
(b) Islamic State
(c) Syrian Democratic Forces (SDF)
(d) Free Syrian Army
Answer: Syrian Democratic Forces (SDF)
Explanation: North-eastern Syria is largely controlled by the Kurdish-led Syrian Democratic Forces, which hold about one-third of Syria’s territory.

Q5. Why does Turkey strongly oppose the Syrian Democratic Forces (SDF)?
(a) Due to religious differences
(b) Because of US support to SDF
(c) Because Turkey considers SDF linked to the PKK
(d) Due to border trade disputes
Answer: Because Turkey considers SDF linked to the PKK
Explanation: Turkey views the SDF as an extension of the Kurdistan Workers’ Party (PKK), which it designates as a terrorist organisation, and therefore supports Damascus against SDF control.

India Tightens AML/CFT Norms for Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs)

Q1. Which body updated India’s anti-money laundering guidelines for Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs) in January 2025?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(c) Financial Intelligence Unit of India
(d) Ministry of Electronics and IT
Answer: Financial Intelligence Unit of India
Explanation: The updated AML/CFT guidelines for VDAs were issued by the Financial Intelligence Unit of India (FIU-IND) under the Finance Ministry.

Q2. Under the revised guidelines, which category of crypto assets has been classified as “unacceptably high risk”?
(a) Stablecoins
(b) Utility tokens
(c) Anonymity-enhancing tokens
(d) Asset-backed tokens
Answer: Anonymity-enhancing tokens
Explanation: Tokens that obscure transaction origin, ownership, or value are considered unacceptably high risk due to their potential misuse for money laundering and terror financing.

Q3. Which of the following crypto-related services are restricted under the new FIU-IND norms?
(a) Crypto exchanges
(b) Crypto wallets only
(c) Crypto mixers and tumblers
(d) Blockchain explorers
Answer: Crypto mixers and tumblers
Explanation: Crypto mixers and tumblers are restricted because they facilitate transaction obfuscation and increase ML/TF risks.

Q4. Why are unhosted or self-custody wallets subject to stricter regulatory scrutiny?
(a) They are illegal in India
(b) They are controlled by foreign entities
(c) They allow higher anonymity and cross-border portability
(d) They cannot store Indian Rupees
Answer: They allow higher anonymity and cross-border portability
Explanation: Regulators consider unhosted wallets high risk due to anonymity, transaction speed, and ease of cross-border movement.

Q5. Which of the following is explicitly excluded from the scope of FIU-IND’s VDA guidelines?
(a) Stablecoins
(b) Non-fungible tokens (NFTs)
(c) Digital Rupee (e₹)
(d) Peer-to-peer crypto transfers
Answer: Digital Rupee (e₹)
Explanation: The Digital Rupee is India’s Central Bank Digital Currency and represents sovereign fiat currency, hence it is excluded from the VDA regulatory framework.

Odisha Emerges as a Major Hub for International Higher Education in India

Q1. Which university in Odisha was ranked as the fifth best in India for attracting foreign students by NITI Aayog?
(a) Utkal University
(b) KIIT (Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology)
(c) IIT Bhubaneswar
(d) SOA University
Answer: KIIT (Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology)
Explanation: NITI Aayog’s report ranked KIIT as the fifth best university in India in terms of attracting international students.

Q2. Under which national policy is India promoting the internationalisation of higher education?
(a) National Skill Development Policy
(b) New Education Framework
(c) National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
(d) Higher Education Reform Act
Answer: National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
Explanation: NEP 2020 places strong emphasis on global engagement and internationalisation of India’s higher education system.

Q3. Odisha’s performance in attracting international students has placed it among which group of Indian states?
(a) Top five states
(b) Top ten states
(c) Bottom ten states
(d) Only eastern states
Answer: Top ten states
Explanation: According to NITI Aayog, Odisha ranks among the top ten Indian states in attracting foreign students.

Q4. Approximately how many international students from nearly 70 countries are studying at KIIT?
(a) About 500
(b) About 1,000
(c) About 1,500
(d) Over 2,000
Answer: Over 2,000
Explanation: KIIT hosts more than 2,000 international students, which is the largest concentration in eastern India.

Q5. Which organisation released the report highlighting Odisha and KIIT’s role in international higher education?
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) Ministry of Education
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) AICTE
Answer: NITI Aayog
Explanation: NITI Aayog, the government’s policy think tank, published the report recognising Odisha and KIIT’s achievements.

Odisha Cabinet Approves ₹10,000 Crore Solar Manufacturing Project by Tata Power Renewable Energy

Q1. Which company will establish the integrated solar manufacturing facility in Odisha’s Ganjam district?
(a) Adani Green Energy
(b) Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited
(c) Reliance New Energy
(d) ReNew Power
Answer: Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited
Explanation: The Odisha cabinet approved the proposal by Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited to set up a large integrated solar manufacturing facility.

Q2. What is the total investment value of the solar manufacturing project approved by the Odisha government?
(a) ₹5,000 crore
(b) ₹7,500 crore
(c) ₹9,000 crore
(d) ₹10,000 crore
Answer: ₹10,000 crore
Explanation: The project is valued at ₹10,000 crore, making it one of the largest clean energy investments in Odisha.

Q3. Where will the solar manufacturing facility be located?
(a) Kalinganagar Industrial Area
(b) Paradeep SEZ
(c) Tata Special Economic Zone, Ganjam
(d) Angul Industrial Cluster
Answer: Tata Special Economic Zone, Ganjam
Explanation: The facility will be established inside the Tata SEZ in Ganjam district of Odisha.

Q4. What will be the manufacturing capacity of the facility once it becomes operational?
(a) 5 GW ingots and 5 GW cells
(b) 10 GW solar modules only
(c) 10 GW ingot and wafer, and 5 GW solar cells
(d) 15 GW solar panels
Answer: 10 GW ingot and wafer, and 5 GW solar cells
Explanation: The project includes upstream solar manufacturing with 10 GW capacity for ingots and wafers and 5 GW for solar cells.

Q5. Approximately how many direct and indirect jobs is the project expected to generate?
(a) About 2,000
(b) About 3,000
(c) About 4,000
(d) Over 5,000
Answer: Over 5,000
Explanation: The project is expected to generate more than 5,000 direct and indirect jobs and boost ancillary industries like glass, chemicals, and logistics.

Justice Mahesh S. Sonak Sworn in as Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court

Q1. Who was sworn in as the new Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court?
(a) Justice Tarlok Singh Chauhan
(b) Justice Hemant Gupta
(c) Justice Mahesh Sharadchandra Sonak
(d) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
Answer: Justice Mahesh Sharadchandra Sonak
Explanation: Justice Mahesh Sharadchandra Sonak took oath as the Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court, marking a key judicial transition in the state.

Q2. Who administered the oath of office to the Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court?
(a) Chief Minister Hemant Soren
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Jharkhand Governor Santosh Gangwar
(d) Law Minister of Jharkhand
Answer: Jharkhand Governor Santosh Gangwar
Explanation: As per constitutional practice, the Governor of the state administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice of the High Court.

Q3. Justice Mahesh S. Sonak succeeded which former Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court?
(a) Justice Dipankar Datta
(b) Justice Tarlok Singh Chauhan
(c) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
(d) Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi
Answer: Justice Tarlok Singh Chauhan
Explanation: Justice Sonak assumed charge following the superannuation of former Chief Justice Tarlok Singh Chauhan on January 8.

Q4. Justice Mahesh S. Sonak was the judge of which High Court before his elevation to Jharkhand High Court?
(a) Delhi High Court
(b) Goa Bench of Bombay High Court
(c) Karnataka High Court
(d) Calcutta High Court
Answer: Bombay High Court
Explanation: Prior to his appointment as Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court, Justice Sonak served as a judge of the Bombay High Court.

Q5. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution are High Court Chief Justices appointed?
(a) Article 124
(b) Article 131
(c) Article 217
(d) Article 226
Answer: Article 217
Explanation: Article 217 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of judges, including Chief Justices, of High Courts.

“One Battle After Another” Leads 2026 BAFTA Film Awards Longlist

Q1. Which film secured the highest number of mentions in the 2026 BAFTA Film Awards longlist?
(a) Hamnet
(b) Sinners
(c) Marty Supreme
(d) One Battle After Another
Answer: One Battle After Another
Explanation: “One Battle After Another” topped the 2026 BAFTA longlist with 16 mentions, making it the most recognised film at the preliminary stage.

Q2. Which actor headlines the film “One Battle After Another” and leads the acting longlist?
(a) Timothée Chalamet
(b) Benicio Del Toro
(c) Leonardo DiCaprio
(d) Jacob Elordi
Answer: Leonardo DiCaprio
Explanation: Leonardo DiCaprio’s central performance in the film has received strong recognition, placing him at the forefront of the acting race.

Q3. Which two films followed closely behind with 14 mentions each on the BAFTA longlist?
(a) Sinners and Marty Supreme
(b) Hamnet and Sinners
(c) Hamnet and Marty Supreme
(d) Frankenstein and Sinners
Answer: Hamnet and Sinners
Explanation: “Hamnet”, directed by Chloé Zhao, and “Sinners”, directed by Ryan Coogler, each received 14 mentions on the longlist.

Q4. The BAFTA longlist is prepared through voting by approximately how many members?
(a) 2,500
(b) 4,000
(c) 5,000
(d) 6,500
Answer: 6,500
Explanation: Over 6,500 BAFTA members participate in the longlisting process, making it a broad industry-wide assessment.

Q5. When and where will the 2026 BAFTA Film Awards ceremony be held?
(a) January 27 at Royal Albert Hall
(b) February 22 at Royal Festival Hall, London
(c) February 15 at London Palladium
(d) March 1 at O2 Arena
Answer: February 22 at Royal Festival Hall, London
Explanation: The 2026 BAFTA Film Awards ceremony is scheduled for February 22 at London’s Royal Festival Hall, following the final nominations announcement on January 27.

Puri Becomes India’s First City with 24×7 Safe Drinkable Tap Water

Q1. Which city has become India’s first to provide 24×7 drinkable tap water to its residents?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Cuttack
(c) Puri
(d) Rourkela
Answer: Puri
Explanation: Puri achieved a major public health milestone by becoming the first Indian city where residents can safely drink water directly from the tap round the clock.

Q2. Under which mission was Puri’s drinkable tap water project implemented?
(a) Jal Jeevan Mission
(b) Swachh Bharat Mission
(c) Sujal — Drink From Tap Mission
(d) Namami Gange Mission
Answer: Sujal — Drink From Tap Mission
Explanation: The ‘Sujal — Drink From Tap Mission’ was launched by the Odisha government in 2021 to provide safe drinking water directly from household taps.

Q3. Puri’s tap water quality meets the standards prescribed by which organisation?
(a) WHO
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Central Pollution Control Board
(d) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
Answer: Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
Explanation: The drinking water supplied in Puri is certified as safe according to BIS standards.

Q4. Which central government programme is Puri’s tap water initiative aligned with?
(a) Smart Cities Mission
(b) AMRUT
(c) PMAY
(d) National Health Mission
Answer: AMRUT
Explanation: The project aligns with the AMRUT programme, which focuses on improving urban water supply and sanitation infrastructure.

Q5. What role do ‘Jal Sathi’ women play in Puri’s tap water programme?
(a) Collecting water charges
(b) Installing pipelines
(c) Community-level monitoring and water quality checks
(d) Manufacturing water purifiers
Answer: Community-level monitoring and water quality checks
Explanation: Trained ‘Jal Sathi’ women support field inspections, water testing, and community engagement, ensuring accountability and safety at the grassroots level.

US Invites India and Australia to G7 Finance Ministers’ Meeting on Critical Minerals

Q1. Which country hosted the meeting of G7 finance ministers on critical minerals supply chains?
(a) United Kingdom
(b) Germany
(c) United States
(d) Canada
Answer: United States
Explanation: The meeting was hosted in Washington by the United States to discuss securing critical minerals supply chains.

Q2. Which two countries outside the G7 were invited to participate in the critical minerals meeting?
(a) India and Brazil
(b) Australia and Japan
(c) India and Australia
(d) South Korea and Singapore
Answer: India and Australia
Explanation: The United States invited India and Australia to join the G7 finance ministers’ talks due to their strategic importance in critical minerals supply chains.

Q3. Why is Australia considered a key partner in diversifying critical minerals supply chains?
(a) It is the largest oil producer
(b) It has signed a minerals agreement with China
(c) It has a strong resource base and a strategic reserve for rare earths and lithium
(d) It controls global semiconductor production
Answer: It has a strong resource base and a strategic reserve for rare earths and lithium
Explanation: Australia’s vast mineral resources and plans for a strategic reserve make it central to efforts to reduce dependence on China.

Q4. According to the International Energy Agency, China dominates global refining of critical minerals in what approximate range?
(a) 20%–30%
(b) 30%–45%
(c) 47%–87%
(d) 90%–100%
Answer: 47%–87%
Explanation: China processes between 47 per cent and 87 per cent of key minerals like lithium, cobalt, graphite, and rare earths.

Q5. Critical minerals are most essential for which of the following sectors?
(a) Agriculture and textiles
(b) Tourism and hospitality
(c) Clean energy, defence, and advanced technology
(d) Food processing and FMCG
Answer: Clean energy, defence, and advanced technology
Explanation: Critical minerals are vital for batteries, semiconductors, renewable energy systems, and military technologies, making them strategically important.

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