6 January Current Affairs – Important History Events (Exam Oriented Notes)
1912 – New Mexico became the 47th US state
On 6 January 1912, New Mexico officially became the 47th state of the United States.
It is located in the south-western part of the USA and joined the Union after long territorial administration.
1947 – First round-the-world commercial flight
On this day, Pan-American Airways started the world’s first round-the-world commercial flight.
This marked an important development in international air travel.
1983 – Apple launched Lisa computer
On 6 January 1983, Apple launched Lisa, an early personal computer.
It was one of the first computers to use a graphical user interface (GUI) with a mouse, instead of only keyboard commands.
Today Latest Post Current Affairs
1 to 6 January Current Affairs – Daily GK and Mock Test
Gaganyaan G1 and Artemis-II: Major Human Spaceflight Missions in 2026
Q1. Which mission is India’s first uncrewed orbital test under the Gaganyaan programme, scheduled for 2026?
(a) Gaganyaan G2
(b) Gaganyaan G1
(c) Chandrayaan-4
(d) Aditya-L2
Answer: (b) Gaganyaan G1
Explanation: Gaganyaan G1 is India’s first uncrewed orbital test mission planned for March 2026 to validate key systems before the country’s first human spaceflight.
Q2. Which launch vehicle will be used by ISRO to launch the Gaganyaan G1 mission?
(a) PSLV
(b) GSLV Mk-II
(c) LVM3 (Human-rated)
(d) SSLV
Answer: (c) LVM3 (Human-rated)
Explanation: ISRO will use the human-rated LVM3 rocket for the Gaganyaan G1 mission, as it is designed to meet safety standards required for human spaceflight.
Q3. What is the primary purpose of the humanoid robot Vyommitra in the Gaganyaan G1 mission?
(a) To control the launch vehicle
(b) To conduct lunar experiments
(c) To simulate astronaut responses and monitor systems
(d) To repair satellites in orbit
Answer: (c) To simulate astronaut responses and monitor systems
Explanation: Vyommitra is designed to simulate human actions, monitor life-support and crew-centric systems, and provide critical data during uncrewed Gaganyaan missions.
Q4. Artemis-II mission of NASA is significant because it will be the first crewed mission to do what since 1972?
(a) Dock with a space station
(b) Land humans on Mars
(c) Travel beyond Earth orbit around the Moon
(d) Launch a reusable spacecraft
Answer: (c) Travel beyond Earth orbit around the Moon
Explanation: Artemis-II will send astronauts beyond low-Earth orbit and around the Moon, making it the first such crewed mission since Apollo-17 in 1972.
Q5. Which common objective is shared by both Gaganyaan G1 and Artemis-II missions?
(a) Establishing a permanent lunar base
(b) Testing life-support and crew safety systems
(c) Studying asteroids
(d) Deploying communication satellites
Answer: (b) Testing life-support and crew safety systems
Explanation: Both missions focus on validating life-support, safety, communication, and recovery systems to support future human spaceflight missions.
Puri Upgraded to Municipal Corporation: Key Urban Governance Developments in Odisha
Q1. In 2026, which city became the sixth municipal corporation in Odisha?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Cuttack
(c) Puri
(d) Sambalpur
Answer: (c) Puri
Explanation: Puri was officially upgraded from a municipality to a municipal corporation, becoming the sixth city in Odisha to receive this status after Bhubaneswar, Cuttack, Berhampur, Sambalpur, and Rourkela.
Q2. What is a major benefit of municipal corporation status for cities like Puri?
(a) Reduced population density
(b) Greater financial and administrative autonomy
(c) Elimination of property taxes
(d) Privatization of water supply
Answer: (b) Greater financial and administrative autonomy
Explanation: Municipal corporation status provides enhanced financial and administrative powers, allowing better planning, execution of infrastructure projects, and improved delivery of urban services.
Q3. Which constitutional amendment governs urban local bodies like municipal corporations in India?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 61st Amendment
(c) 74th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Answer: (c) 74th Amendment
Explanation: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides the framework for the governance, powers, and responsibilities of urban local bodies including municipal corporations.
Q4. Apart from upgrading Puri, what other urban governance initiatives were announced by Odisha government?
(a) Declaring four towns as Notified Area Councils (NACs)
(b) Privatizing municipal services in all cities
(c) Merging all municipalities into one corporation
(d) Removing urban local bodies
Answer: (a) Declaring four towns as Notified Area Councils (NACs)
Explanation: The Odisha government declared Loisingha, Chandikhol, Jashipur, and Basta as NACs and expanded the Berhampur Municipal Corporation’s jurisdiction as part of urban reorganisation.
Q5. Why is municipal corporation status important for pilgrimage cities like Puri?
(a) It restricts tourist entry
(b) It helps access central government funding and schemes
(c) It decreases property taxes for residents
(d) It limits urban development projects
Answer: (b) It helps access central government funding and schemes
Explanation: Being a municipal corporation enables cities like Puri to access central government assistance for infrastructure upgrades, heritage conservation, and better amenities to handle large tourist footfall.
India-UAE Joint Military Exercise DESERT CYCLONE–II: Key Highlights
Q1. Where was the second edition of the India-UAE Joint Military Exercise DESERT CYCLONE–II held?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Abu Dhabi
(c) Dubai
(d) Mumbai
Answer: (b) Abu Dhabi
Explanation: DESERT CYCLONE–II was conducted at Al-Hamra Training City in Abu Dhabi from 18 to 30 December 2025, marking the successful completion of bilateral training.
Q2. What was the primary focus of Exercise DESERT CYCLONE–II?
(a) Naval operations
(b) Cyber warfare
(c) Urban warfare and sub-conventional operations
(d) Mountain warfare
Answer: (c) Urban warfare and sub-conventional operations
Explanation: The exercise focused on enhancing interoperability and operational synergy between Indian and UAE forces in an urban warfare environment under a United Nations mandate.
Q3. Which units represented India and UAE in Exercise DESERT CYCLONE–II?
(a) Indian Navy and UAE Air Force
(b) Mechanised Infantry Regiment of India and 53 Mechanised Infantry Battalion of UAE
(c) Paratroopers from both countries
(d) Special Forces of India and UAE
Answer: (b) Mechanised Infantry Regiment of India and 53 Mechanised Infantry Battalion of UAE
Explanation: The Indian contingent consisted mainly of 45 personnel from The Mechanised Infantry Regiment, while UAE was represented by the 53 Mechanised Infantry Battalion.
Q4. Which of the following activities was NOT part of the DESERT CYCLONE–II exercise?
(a) Urban combat fundamentals
(b) Improvised explosive device awareness
(c) Naval ship boarding drills
(d) Casualty evacuation and first aid
Answer: (c) Naval ship boarding drills
Explanation: The exercise focused on urban combat, mission planning, and field training; naval operations were not part of this exercise.
Q5. What was the strategic significance of Exercise DESERT CYCLONE–II?
(a) Developing interoperable capabilities for joint military operations
(b) Establishing a permanent military base in UAE
(c) Launching a new missile system
(d) Conducting space warfare training
Answer: (a) Developing interoperable capabilities for joint military operations
Explanation: The exercise strengthened professional ties and enhanced the ability of both armies to operate together in complex urban scenarios and future multinational missions.
India-Pakistan Annual Exchange of Nuclear Installations Lists: Key Facts
Q1. When was the Agreement on the Prohibition of Attacks against Nuclear Installations and Facilities between India and Pakistan signed?
(a) 1991
(b) 1988
(c) 2008
(d) 1985
Answer: (b) 1988
Explanation: The agreement was signed on 31 December 1988 and came into force on 27 January 1991 to prevent attacks on each other’s nuclear facilities.
Q2. On which date do India and Pakistan annually exchange lists of their nuclear installations under the agreement?
(a) 15 August
(b) 26 January
(c) 1 January
(d) 31 December
Answer: (c) 1 January
Explanation: Both countries exchange updated lists of nuclear installations every year on 1 January as per the agreement.
Q3. Besides nuclear installations, what other lists are exchanged between India and Pakistan as part of confidence-building measures?
(a) Lists of military bases
(b) Lists of prisoners held in each other’s custody
(c) Lists of border posts
(d) Lists of trade agreements
Answer: (b) Lists of prisoners held in each other’s custody
Explanation: Under the Consular Access Agreement signed in 2008, both countries exchange lists of prisoners held, including fishermen and civilians, twice a year.
Q4. How long has the annual exchange of nuclear installations lists between India and Pakistan been uninterruptedly practiced?
(a) Over 10 years
(b) Over 20 years
(c) Over 30 years
(d) Over 5 years
Answer: (c) Over 30 years
Explanation: The practice has been followed uninterruptedly since the agreement came into force in 1991, reflecting a key confidence-building measure.
Q5. What is the primary significance of the annual exchange of nuclear installations lists amid strained India-Pakistan relations?
(a) It allows joint military exercises
(b) It reduces risks and maintains transparency between the two nuclear-armed neighbours
(c) It promotes cross-border trade
(d) It supports space cooperation
Answer: (b) It reduces risks and maintains transparency between the two nuclear-armed neighbours
Explanation: The exchange is a crucial confidence-building measure that helps prevent misunderstandings and conflict escalation by maintaining transparency despite tense bilateral ties.
44th Junior National Kho Kho Championship 2026: Key Highlights
Q1. Where was the 44th Junior National Kho Kho Championship held in 2026?
(a) Kurukshetra, Haryana
(b) Kazipet, Telangana
(c) Bengaluru, Karnataka
(d) Pune, Maharashtra
Answer: (c) Bengaluru, Karnataka
Explanation: The championship commenced at Atal Bihari Vajpayee Stadium in Gunjur, Bengaluru, bringing together nearly 1,000 young athletes from across India.
Q2. What format is used in the Junior National Kho Kho Championship to ensure participation and competitiveness?
(a) Single elimination
(b) League-cum-knockout
(c) Round robin only
(d) Best of three matches
Answer: (b) League-cum-knockout
Explanation: The tournament uses a league-cum-knockout format to provide ample match exposure before elimination rounds begin.
Q3. Who governs Kho Kho at the national level in India?
(a) Indian Olympic Association
(b) Kho Kho Federation of India
(c) All India Sports Council
(d) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
Answer: (b) Kho Kho Federation of India
Explanation: The Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI) is the apex body responsible for governing and promoting Kho Kho in India.
Q4. What is the significance of the Junior National Kho Kho Championship?
(a) Focus on under-18 talent development
(b) Only open to professional players
(c) Includes international teams
(d) Held every four years
Answer: (a) Focus on under-18 talent development
Explanation: The championship provides a platform for nurturing grassroots talent and exposing young players to national-level competition.
Q5. Which upcoming Kho Kho championships were scheduled after the junior event in 2026?
(a) 58th Senior National in Kazipet and 35th Sub-Junior National in Kurukshetra
(b) 60th Senior National in Delhi and 40th Sub-Junior National in Mumbai
(c) 55th Senior National in Hyderabad and 30th Sub-Junior National in Chennai
(d) 50th Senior National in Kolkata and 25th Sub-Junior National in Jaipur
Answer: (a) 58th Senior National in Kazipet and 35th Sub-Junior National in Kurukshetra
Explanation: The 58th Senior National Kho Kho Championship was to be held in Kazipet, Telangana, and the 35th Sub-Junior National in Kurukshetra, Haryana.
Operation Milap: Delhi Police’s Initiative to Trace Missing Persons in Southwest District
Q1. How many missing persons were traced by Delhi Police’s Operation Milap in the southwest district over the past year?
(a) 1,000
(b) 1,303
(c) 1,500
(d) 2,000
Answer: (b) 1,303
Explanation: Operation Milap successfully traced 1,303 missing persons, including 434 children and 869 adults, through coordinated efforts over the year.
Q2. Which of the following played a key role in tracing missing persons under Operation Milap?
(a) Local intelligence and checks at public places like hospitals and transport hubs
(b) Satellite tracking
(c) Social media only
(d) Foreign intelligence agencies
Answer: (a) Local intelligence and checks at public places like hospitals and transport hubs
Explanation: Delhi Police used local informers and systematically checked hospital and police records, along with displaying photos at transport hubs to generate leads.
Q3. Which police station traced the highest number of missing children in December 2025?
(a) Sagarpur
(b) Palam Village
(c) Kapashera
(d) Vasant Kunj South
Answer: (c) Kapashera
Explanation: Kapashera police station traced 12 missing children, all girls, making it the highest in the district for December.
Q4. What is the main focus of Operation Milap?
(a) Conducting road safety campaigns
(b) Tracing missing persons, especially children
(c) Organizing community festivals
(d) Monitoring traffic violations
Answer: (b) Tracing missing persons, especially children
Explanation: Operation Milap is designed to reunite missing persons with their families, with special attention to children, through district-level coordination.
Q5. Which of the following factors contributes significantly to the success of Operation Milap?
(a) Decentralised policing and community participation
(b) International cooperation
(c) Increasing traffic fines
(d) Privatization of police services
Answer: (a) Decentralised policing and community participation
Explanation: The operation’s success is attributed to decentralised efforts by district police stations, data sharing, and active engagement with the community.
Draft Social Security Code Rules for Gig and Platform Workers: Key Points
Q1. According to the draft Social Security Code rules, what is the minimum number of days a gig worker must be engaged with a single aggregator in a financial year to be eligible for social security benefits?
(a) 60 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 180 days
Answer: (b) 90 days
Explanation: Workers must be engaged for at least 90 days with a single aggregator in a financial year to qualify for social security benefits under the draft rules.
Q2. How does the draft Social Security Code treat workdays if a worker is engaged with multiple aggregators on the same day?
(a) Only one engagement is counted
(b) Each platform engagement counts separately
(c) No workdays are counted
(d) Only the highest-paying aggregator counts
Answer: (b) Each platform engagement counts separately
Explanation: The draft allows cumulative counting of workdays across multiple platforms, benefiting workers engaged with several aggregators simultaneously.
Q3. What is mandatory for all gig and platform workers above 16 years according to the draft rules?
(a) Register on a central government portal using Aadhaar-based self-declaration
(b) Attend monthly training sessions
(c) Pay a registration fee
(d) Register with local municipal authorities
Answer: (a) Register on a central government portal using Aadhaar-based self-declaration
Explanation: All eligible workers must register through Aadhaar-based self-declaration on a government portal to access social security benefits.
Q4. What happens to a worker’s eligibility for benefits if they remain disengaged for 90 days with a single aggregator?
(a) Eligibility continues indefinitely
(b) Eligibility ceases
(c) Eligibility is paused but can be resumed anytime
(d) Eligibility increases
Answer: (b) Eligibility ceases
Explanation: Workers lose eligibility for benefits if disengaged for 90 days with a single aggregator, or 120 days if engaged with multiple aggregators.
Q5. What impact will the draft rules have on gig economy platforms (aggregators)?
(a) Reduce compliance costs
(b) Increase compliance costs due to mandatory registration and reporting
(c) Allow unlimited worker engagement without reporting
(d) Eliminate the need for worker registration
Answer: (b) Increase compliance costs due to mandatory registration and reporting
Explanation: The draft mandates aggregators to register workers on a government portal and regularly update data, increasing compliance requirements and costs.
India-Bangladesh Ganga Water Sharing Treaty
Q1. When was the original Ganga Water Sharing Treaty between India and Bangladesh signed?
(a) 1971
(b) 1985
(c) 1996
(d) 2000
Answer: (c) 1996
Explanation: The treaty was signed in 1996 and is valid for 30 years, regulating dry-season water sharing at the Farakka Barrage.
Q2. What is the primary focus of the Ganga Water Sharing Treaty?
(a) Sharing monsoon season flows
(b) Sharing dry-season flows at the Farakka Barrage
(c) Building new dams jointly
(d) Promoting fisheries in the Ganga basin
Answer: (b) Sharing dry-season flows at the Farakka Barrage
Explanation: The treaty provides a mechanism to share water during lean months at Farakka to stabilise relations and water availability.
Q3. What mechanism coordinates water-sharing issues between India and Bangladesh?
(a) South Asia Water Forum
(b) Indo-Bangladesh Joint River Commission
(c) Mekong River Commission
(d) SAARC Water Secretariat
Answer: (b) Indo-Bangladesh Joint River Commission
Explanation: This commission facilitates cooperation and transparency on transboundary river issues between the two countries.
Q4. Why has Bangladesh called for heightened security during water measurement exercises?
(a) Rising anti-India sentiments and domestic political turbulence
(b) Increased flooding risk
(c) Military tensions unrelated to water
(d) Climate protests by locals
Answer: (a) Rising anti-India sentiments and domestic political turbulence
Explanation: Political sensitivities in Bangladesh have led to calls for enhanced security for Indian officials conducting measurements.
Q5. How many transboundary rivers do India and Bangladesh share?
(a) 12
(b) 34
(c) 54
(d) 72
Answer: (c) 54
Explanation: India and Bangladesh share 54 transboundary rivers, making water cooperation critical for both countries.
Tripura State Load Dispatch Centre Gets ISO/IEC 27001:2022 Certification
Q1. What certification did the Tripura State Load Dispatch Centre recently receive?
(a) ISO 9001
(b) ISO/IEC 27001:2022
(c) ISO 14001
(d) ISO 45001
Answer: (b) ISO/IEC 27001:2022
Explanation: This is an international standard for information security management systems, emphasizing cyber security.
Q2. What is the role of a State Load Dispatch Centre in the power sector?
(a) Constructing power plants
(b) Managing real-time electricity flow and grid stability
(c) Distributing electricity bills
(d) Conducting energy audits
Answer: (b) Managing real-time electricity flow and grid stability
Explanation: Load Dispatch Centres coordinate electricity scheduling and ensure grid reliability.
Q3. Why is cyber security important for power infrastructure?
(a) To reduce electricity tariffs
(b) To protect computerised control systems from cyberattacks and ensure uninterrupted supply
(c) To promote renewable energy
(d) To increase power generation capacity
Answer: (b) To protect computerised control systems from cyberattacks and ensure uninterrupted supply
Explanation: Cyber threats can disrupt grid operations, making cyber resilience vital for national energy security.
Q4. Tripura is the first in which region to receive this certification for a Load Dispatch Centre?
(a) South India
(b) Northeast India
(c) Western India
(d) Central India
Answer: (b) Northeast India
Explanation: Tripura became the first state in Northeast India to secure ISO/IEC 27001:2022 certification for its Load Dispatch Centre.
Q5. What broader impact does this certification have on power management in Tripura?
(a) Sets a benchmark for cyber security in the region and improves coordination with grid operators
(b) Reduces electricity prices significantly
(c) Increases fossil fuel dependence
(d) Promotes private sector control over the grid
Answer: (a) Sets a benchmark for cyber security in the region and improves coordination with grid operators
Explanation: The certification demonstrates leadership in adopting global standards for operational resilience and cyber protection.
Assam’s Proton Therapy Initiative
Q1. Which Indian state is set to become the first to introduce proton therapy for cancer treatment in the public health system?
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Assam
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (c) Assam
Explanation: Assam is procuring a proton therapy machine at an estimated ₹500 crore, becoming the first state to offer this advanced cancer treatment in government healthcare.
Q2. What is proton therapy?
(a) A form of chemotherapy
(b) A type of surgery for cancer
(c) A precise form of radiotherapy using proton beams
(d) Herbal cancer treatment
Answer: (c) A precise form of radiotherapy using proton beams
Explanation: Proton therapy targets tumours precisely, minimising damage to healthy tissues and is especially effective for paediatric and critical organ cancers.
Q3. Where is proton therapy currently available in India?
(a) Only in government hospitals
(b) Only in private hospitals like Tata Memorial and Apollo Chennai
(c) Widely across all states
(d) Not available in India yet
Answer: (b) Only in private hospitals like Tata Memorial and Apollo Chennai
Explanation: Currently, proton therapy facilities are only in private sector hospitals, making Assam’s public system move a first.
Q4. How will the introduction of proton therapy benefit the Northeast region?
(a) Increase tourism only
(b) Reduce patient travel outside the region for advanced cancer care
(c) Increase healthcare costs
(d) Limit cancer treatments to private hospitals
Answer: (b) Reduce patient travel outside the region for advanced cancer care
Explanation: This facility will provide advanced oncology care locally, reducing the need for patients to seek treatment elsewhere.
Q5. What other major infrastructure projects are underway in Assam alongside healthcare investments?
(a) New airports only
(b) Bridges over Brahmaputra, elevated corridors, and underwater tunnels
(c) Only schools and colleges
(d) Only power plants
Answer: (b) Bridges over Brahmaputra, elevated corridors, and underwater tunnels
Explanation: Assam is accelerating multi-sector development including transport infrastructure along with healthcare.
First Animal Contingent at Republic Day Parade 2026
Q1. Which corps will make its debut animal contingent at the Republic Day Parade 2026?
(a) Dog Squad
(b) Remount & Veterinary Corps
(c) Border Security Force
(d) Air Force
Answer: (b) Remount & Veterinary Corps
Explanation: The Remount & Veterinary Corps will march with animals to highlight their role in military operations.
Q2. Which animals will lead the animal contingent at the parade?
(a) Horses and elephants
(b) Bactrian camels and Zanskar ponies
(c) Dogs and falcons
(d) Buffalo and mules
Answer: (b) Bactrian camels and Zanskar ponies
Explanation: Two Bactrian camels adapted for Ladakh’s cold deserts and four Zanskar ponies, indigenous mountain breed, will lead the column.
Q3. What is special about Bactrian camels used by the Indian Army?
(a) Adapted to hot deserts
(b) Can carry loads up to 250 kg and operate above 15,000 feet altitude
(c) Only used for ceremonial purposes
(d) Can fly short distances
Answer: (b) Can carry loads up to 250 kg and operate above 15,000 feet altitude
Explanation: These camels are suited for extreme cold, high altitudes, and are vital for logistical support in Ladakh.
Q4. What roles do the Army dogs showcased in the parade perform?
(a) Only ceremonial functions
(b) Counter-terrorism, explosive detection, tracking, guarding, and rescue
(c) Herding livestock
(d) Entertainment only
Answer: (b) Counter-terrorism, explosive detection, tracking, guarding, and rescue
Explanation: Army dogs are trained “Silent Warriors” playing critical roles in security and disaster response.
Q5. How can the public attend the Republic Day Parade 2026?
(a) Free walk-in entry
(b) Pre-book tickets through official government portals
(c) Tickets sold at the parade site only
(d) Only invited guests can attend
Answer: (b) Pre-book tickets through official government portals
Explanation: Spectators must book tickets in advance online as per Ministry of Defence guidelines.
Tamil Nadu’s 2026 Jallikattu Season Begins at Thatchankurichi
Q1. When and where will the first Jallikattu event of 2026 be held in Tamil Nadu?
(a) 1 January, Chennai
(b) 3 January, Thatchankurichi village, Pudukkottai district
(c) 5 January, Coimbatore
(d) 10 January, Madurai
Answer: (b) 3 January, Thatchankurichi village, Pudukkottai district
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu government approved the first Jallikattu event on 3 January 2026 at Thatchankurichi village, Pudukkottai district.
Q2. Under which law is Jallikattu regulated in Tamil Nadu?
(a) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(b) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (Tamil Nadu Amendment Act, 2017)
(c) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(d) Public Safety Act
Answer: (b) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (Tamil Nadu Amendment Act, 2017)
Explanation: Jallikattu is legally permitted under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, amended by Tamil Nadu in 2017 with specific safeguards.
Q3. What is the meaning of “Vaadivaasal” in the context of Jallikattu?
(a) Bull-tamer
(b) Entry point for bulls
(c) Spectator area
(d) Safety officer
Answer: (b) Entry point for bulls
Explanation: Vaadivaasal refers to the controlled and designated entry gates for bulls in the Jallikattu arena.
Q4. How are applications for conducting Jallikattu events to be submitted according to the latest rules?
(a) By hand in district offices
(b) Through designated online portals only
(c) Via postal mail
(d) No application required
Answer: (b) Through designated online portals only
Explanation: To ensure transparency and monitoring, applications must be submitted online; manual submissions are disallowed.
Q5. What safety measures have been emphasised for the 2026 Jallikattu events?
(a) Crowd management, animal welfare, and emergency response preparedness
(b) No safety measures needed
(c) Only animal vaccination
(d) Only crowd photography restrictions
Answer: (a) Crowd management, animal welfare, and emergency response preparedness
Explanation: The administration enforces comprehensive safety norms including disaster preparedness and public safety.
Albert Ekka Brigade’s 56th Raising Day Commemoration
Q1. In which year did the Albert Ekka Brigade observe its 56th Raising Day?
(a) 2024
(b) 2025
(c) 2026
(d) 2027
Answer: (c) 2026
Explanation: The brigade celebrated its 56th Raising Day at Agartala Military Station in 2026.
Q2. During which war did the Albert Ekka Brigade earn the Param Vir Chakra and play a pivotal role?
(a) 1965 Indo-Pak War
(b) 1971 India-Pakistan War
(c) Kargil War 1999
(d) 1947-48 Kashmir Conflict
Answer: (b) 1971 India-Pakistan War
Explanation: The brigade showed gallantry in the 1971 war, especially in the Tripura sector as part of Operation Cactus Lily.
Q3. Who was Lance Naik Albert Ekka and why is the brigade named after him?
(a) A general in 1947 war
(b) Soldier awarded Param Vir Chakra posthumously for bravery in 1971
(c) Founder of the brigade
(d) A famous politician from Tripura
Answer: (b) Soldier awarded Param Vir Chakra posthumously for bravery in 1971
Explanation: Lance Naik Albert Ekka sacrificed his life neutralising an enemy bunker and was awarded India’s highest wartime gallantry award.
Q4. What was the major eastern front operation involving the Albert Ekka Brigade in 1971?
(a) Operation Blue Star
(b) Operation Cactus Lily
(c) Operation Vijay
(d) Operation Meghdoot
Answer: (b) Operation Cactus Lily
Explanation: Operation Cactus Lily was a major military offensive on the eastern front in the 1971 war, involving this brigade.
Q5. What significant event marked the end of the 1971 war involving the Albert Ekka Brigade’s operations?
(a) Signing of the Tashkent Agreement
(b) Surrender of 93,000 Pakistani soldiers on 16 December 1971
(c) Capture of Kashmir
(d) Indo-China border peace treaty
Answer: (b) Surrender of 93,000 Pakistani soldiers on 16 December 1971
Explanation: The war ended with a massive surrender, leading to the creation of independent Bangladesh.
New Fiscal Levies on Tobacco and Pan Masala from February 1
Q1. From which date will the new fiscal levies on tobacco products and pan masala come into effect?
(a) 1 January
(b) 15 January
(c) 1 February
(d) 1 March
Answer: (c) 1 February
Explanation: The government has notified that new levies will be effective from 1 February, replacing the earlier compensation cess regime.
Q2. What tax structure is replacing the compensation cess on tobacco and pan masala products?
(a) Reduced GST rates
(b) Product-specific excise duty and Health and National Security Cess outside GST
(c) Only GST with no additional cess
(d) No change in tax structure
Answer: (b) Product-specific excise duty and Health and National Security Cess outside GST
Explanation: The compensation cess is replaced by product-specific levies applied in addition to GST.
Q3. What GST rate will be applied to cigarettes and pan masala from February 1?
(a) 18%
(b) 28%
(c) 40%
(d) 12%
Answer: (c) 40%
Explanation: Cigarettes and pan masala will attract a 40% GST rate as part of the revised tax framework.
Q4. Which tobacco product continues to attract a lower GST rate of 18%?
(a) Cigarettes
(b) Pan masala
(c) Biris
(d) Gutkha
Answer: (c) Biris
Explanation: Biris will continue to be taxed at 18% GST to reflect the economic realities of low-income consumers.
Q5. What is the purpose of the Health and National Security Cess introduced on pan masala?
(a) To promote pan masala consumption
(b) To generate revenue specifically for public health and national security priorities
(c) To replace GST completely
(d) To reduce prices of pan masala
Answer: (b) To generate revenue specifically for public health and national security priorities
Explanation: The cess is designed to discourage consumption and fund related public health and security initiatives.
Bulgaria Joins the Eurozone as 21st Member
Q1. What major currency change did Bulgaria make when joining the eurozone?
(a) Adopted the lev as new currency
(b) Adopted the euro, retiring the lev
(c) Adopted the Deutschmark
(d) Continued using the lev alongside the euro
Answer: (b) Adopted the euro, retiring the lev
Explanation: Bulgaria replaced its national currency, the lev, with the euro upon joining the eurozone.
Q2. What is the eurozone?
(a) All European countries using the dollar
(b) EU member states using the euro as sole legal currency
(c) A trade agreement among European nations
(d) A military alliance in Europe
Answer: (b) EU member states using the euro as sole legal currency
Explanation: The eurozone is the group of EU countries that have adopted the euro as their exclusive currency.
Q3. Which treaty laid the foundation for the eurozone?
(a) Treaty of Lisbon
(b) Maastricht Treaty, 1992
(c) Treaty of Paris
(d) Treaty of Rome
Answer: (b) Maastricht Treaty, 1992
Explanation: The Maastricht Treaty established the economic and monetary union that formed the eurozone.
Q4. Which EU country has a formal opt-out from adopting the euro?
(a) Sweden
(b) Denmark
(c) Poland
(d) Bulgaria
Answer: (b) Denmark
Explanation: Denmark is the only EU member with a formal opt-out from adopting the euro.
Q5. What are some challenges Bulgaria faces after joining the eurozone?
(a) Political instability and public opposition, especially from pro-Russia groups
(b) Economic sanctions from the EU
(c) Complete economic isolation
(d) High inflation caused by lev currency
Answer: (a) Political instability and public opposition, especially from pro-Russia groups
Explanation: Bulgaria faces political turmoil and protests with opposition citing risks of a debt crisis and political distrust.
Rare Sirkeer Malkoha Bird Sighted in Uttarkashi
Q1. Where was the rare Sirkeer Malkoha bird recently sighted for the first time?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Barkot, Uttarkashi district
(c) Nainital
(d) Rishikesh
Answer: (b) Barkot, Uttarkashi district
Explanation: The bird was recorded near Barkot by the Upper Yamuna Forest Division team.
Q2. What is the usual habitat of the Sirkeer Malkoha?
(a) High altitude Himalayan forests above 2,000 metres
(b) Dry scrub forests and open woodlands below 1,000 metres
(c) Coastal mangroves
(d) Urban parks and gardens
Answer: (b) Dry scrub forests and open woodlands below 1,000 metres
Explanation: The species is typically found in warmer low-altitude habitats below 1,000 metres.
Q3. Why is the sighting of Sirkeer Malkoha in Uttarkashi significant?
(a) It shows the bird is migrating to new continents
(b) It indicates possible habitat shifts linked to climate change
(c) It confirms the extinction of the species
(d) It was captured for commercial purposes
Answer: (b) It indicates possible habitat shifts linked to climate change
Explanation: The bird’s presence at higher altitudes may be due to environmental and climatic changes.
Q4. Which state in India is Uttarkashi district located?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Sikkim
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
Answer: (b) Uttarakhand
Explanation: Uttarkashi is a district in Uttarakhand, located in the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot.
Q5. Why are birds like the Sirkeer Malkoha considered important in environmental studies?
(a) They help in pollination
(b) They are key bio-indicators of climate and environmental change
(c) They are a major food source for humans
(d) They control insect populations only
Answer: (b) They are key bio-indicators of climate and environmental change
Explanation: Birds respond quickly to changes in habitat and temperature, signaling environmental shifts.
Defence Procurement Contracts Worth ₹4,666 Crore Signed by Ministry of Defence
Q1. What is the total value of the recent defence procurement contracts signed by the Ministry of Defence?
(a) ₹2,770 crore
(b) ₹1,896 crore
(c) ₹4,666 crore
(d) ₹1,82,492 crore
Answer: (c) ₹4,666 crore
Explanation: The contracts cover Close Quarter Battle Carbines and Heavyweight Torpedoes worth ₹4,666 crore in total.
Q2. Which two companies are supplying the Close Quarter Battle (CQB) Carbines?
(a) Bharat Electronics Ltd and HAL
(b) Bharat Forge Ltd and PLR Systems Pvt Ltd
(c) Larsen & Toubro and DRDO
(d) WASS Submarine Systems and BHEL
Answer: (b) Bharat Forge Ltd and PLR Systems Pvt Ltd
Explanation: These companies are supplying the indigenously developed CQB Carbines for the Army and Navy.
Q3. For which naval submarines are the 48 Heavyweight Torpedoes being procured?
(a) Arihant Class
(b) Shishumar Class
(c) Kalvari Class
(d) Chakra Class
Answer: (c) Kalvari Class
Explanation: The torpedoes will be integrated into Kalvari Class submarines, part of Project-75.
Q4. What is the significance of the CQB Carbines’ induction under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative?
(a) They are imported from Russia
(b) They represent indigenous defence production and reduced imports
(c) They are for ceremonial use only
(d) They are designed for naval aircraft
Answer: (b) They represent indigenous defence production and reduced imports
Explanation: CQB Carbines are part of the Make in India drive to strengthen domestic defence manufacturing.
Q5. When is the delivery of the Heavyweight Torpedoes expected to be completed?
(a) By early 2027
(b) Between April 2028 and early 2030
(c) By December 2026
(d) By 2035
Answer: (b) Between April 2028 and early 2030
Explanation: The contract specifies delivery starting April 2028 and concluding by early 2030.
Pralay Missile Successful User Trial
Q1. What type of missile is Pralay?
A) Ballistic missile
B) Quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile
C) Cruise missile
D) Intercontinental ballistic missile
Answer: (B) Quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile
Explanation: Pralay follows a depressed, manoeuvrable trajectory unlike conventional ballistic missiles.
Q2. What is the strike range of the Pralay missile?
A) 50-150 km
B) 150-500 km
C) 500-1000 km
D) More than 1000 km
Answer: (B) 150-500 km
Explanation: Depending on payload, Pralay can strike targets between 150 and 500 km.
Q3. What is the significance of Pralay’s salvo launch capability?
A) Can launch missiles from aircraft
B) Fires multiple missiles successively from a single launcher
C) Launches missiles underwater
D) Fires only one missile at a time
Answer: (B) Fires multiple missiles successively from a single launcher
Explanation: Salvo launch allows quick successive firing from the same platform enhancing battlefield effectiveness.
Q4. Which Indian organisation developed the Pralay missile?
A) HAL
B) DRDO
C) ISRO
D) BEL
Answer: (B) DRDO
Explanation: The Defence Research and Development Organisation led development, especially Research Centre Imarat.
Q5. Compared to BrahMos, Pralay missile is:
A) Slower
B) Faster
C) Same speed
D) Not comparable
Answer: (B) Faster
Explanation: Pralay exceeds Mach 6, making it faster than BrahMos.
Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) Phase 3 Approved
Q1. What is the approved budget for the third phase of ECMS?
A) ₹10,000 crore
B) ₹25,000 crore
C) ₹41,863 crore
D) ₹54,567 crore
Answer: (C) ₹41,863 crore
Explanation: The Centre approved ₹41,863 crore for ECMS phase 3.
Q2. Which sector does ECMS aim to strengthen?
A) Automobile manufacturing
B) Electronics components manufacturing
C) Textile industry
D) Pharmaceutical production
Answer: (B) Electronics components manufacturing
Explanation: ECMS focuses on boosting India’s domestic electronics component ecosystem.
Q3. What is one key goal of the ECMS?
A) Increase imports of electronics components
B) Support import substitution and export growth
C) Promote fossil fuel production
D) Limit employment generation
Answer: (B) Support import substitution and export growth
Explanation: The scheme aims to reduce import dependence and increase exports.
Q4. How many companies have received approvals across ECMS phases so far?
A) 10
B) 25
C) 46
D) 100
Answer: (C) 46
Explanation: 46 approvals have been given to firms under ECMS phases.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT a component mentioned as reduced import under ECMS?
A) Printed circuit boards
B) Lithium-ion cells
C) Steel sheets
D) Camera modules
Answer: (C) Steel sheets
Explanation: Steel sheets are not part of electronics components targeted by ECMS.
Public Transport Connectivity in Tumman Village, Himachal Pradesh
Q1. In which district is Tumman village, recently connected by a government bus service, located?
A) Shimla
B) Mandi
C) Kullu
D) Kangra
Answer: (B) Mandi
Explanation: Tumman village is in the Karsog subdivision of Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh.
Q2. Which state-run corporation operates the first bus service in Tumman village?
A) Haryana Road Transport Corporation
B) Himachal Road Transport Corporation
C) Uttarakhand Transport Corporation
D) Punjab Roadways
Answer: (B) Himachal Road Transport Corporation
Explanation: HRTC is the official public transport agency of Himachal Pradesh.
Q3. How many years after Independence did Tumman village get its first government bus service?
A) About 50 years
B) Nearly 60 years
C) Nearly 80 years
D) More than 90 years
Answer: (C) Nearly 80 years
Explanation: The first bus service arrived in 2025, nearly 78 years after 1947.
Q4. What is the approximate distance between Tumman village and the Ani bus stand?
A) 5 km
B) 10 km
C) 15 km
D) 25 km
Answer: (C) 15 km
Explanation: Tumman village is about 15 km from Ani bus stand.
Q5. Which other village in Karsog subdivision received its first government bus service in April 2023?
A) Talaihan
B) Chindi
C) Sundernagar
D) Kullu
Answer: (A) Talaihan
Explanation: Talaihan village got its first bus service in 2023 after nearly 70 years.
India’s Tiger Mortality and Conservation
Q1. How many tiger deaths were reported in India in 2025 according to the National Tiger Conservation Authority?
A) 126
B) 140
C) 166
D) 182
Answer: (C) 166
Explanation: The latest data reported 166 tiger deaths in 2025.
Q2. Which Indian state recorded the highest number of tiger deaths in 2025?
A) Maharashtra
B) Kerala
C) Assam
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh had 55 tiger deaths, the highest among states.
Q3. What is one major cause attributed to increased tiger deaths in Madhya Pradesh?
A) Climate change
B) Territorial conflicts due to habitat constraints
C) Disease outbreak
D) Excessive tourism
Answer: (B) Territorial conflicts due to habitat constraints
Explanation: Rapid population growth increased territorial conflicts.
Q4. How many tiger cub deaths were reported in 2025?
A) 12
B) 22
C) 31
D) 40
Answer: (C) 31
Explanation: Out of total mortalities, 31 were tiger cubs.
Q5. Which authority governs tiger conservation efforts in India?
A) Central Wildlife Board
B) National Tiger Conservation Authority
C) Forest Conservation Council
D) Indian Biodiversity Board
Answer: (B) National Tiger Conservation Authority
Explanation: NTCA was established under the Wildlife Protection Act to manage tiger conservation.
Surat’s Progress Towards a Slum-Free City
Q1. Surat is famously known as India’s:
A) Textile Capital
B) Diamond Capital
C) IT Hub
D) Financial Capital
Answer: (B) Diamond Capital
Explanation: Surat is widely known as India’s Diamond Capital.
Q2. What does ‘in-situ redevelopment’ mean in the context of Surat’s housing?
A) Building new homes in a different city
B) Rebuilding housing on the same site where slums existed
C) Relocating residents to rural areas
D) Constructing high-rise apartments in the outskirts
Answer: (B) Rebuilding housing on the same site where slums existed
Explanation: It means redevelopment without relocating residents far away.
Q3. Which central scheme has been key in supporting Surat’s affordable housing drive?
A) Smart Cities Mission
B) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
C) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
D) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation
Answer: (B) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
Explanation: PMAY supports ‘Housing for All’ with affordable housing units.
Q4. What is a major challenge Surat faces in managing urban development?
A) Lack of industrial growth
B) High rural to urban migration
C) Declining population
D) Inadequate road infrastructure
Answer: (B) High rural to urban migration
Explanation: Surat attracts large migrant workforce due to its industrial economy.
Q5. Achieving slum-free status is expected to:
A) Increase tourism drastically
B) Enhance India’s global image in inclusive urban planning
C) Reduce industrial output
D) Lead to depopulation of the city
Answer: (B) Enhance India’s global image in inclusive urban planning
Explanation: Surat’s success serves as a model for sustainable and inclusive urban development.
Turkmenistan Legalises Cryptocurrency Mining and Exchange
Q1. When did Turkmenistan formally legalise cryptocurrency mining and exchange operations?
A) January 2024
B) January 2025
C) January 2026
D) December 2025
Answer: (C) January 2026
Explanation: The law was signed on January 1, 2026.
Q2. Under the new law, how are cryptocurrencies classified in Turkmenistan?
A) Legal tender
B) Securities
C) Virtual assets governed by civil law
D) Foreign currency
Answer: (C) Virtual assets governed by civil law
Explanation: Cryptocurrencies are regulated as virtual assets, not legal tender or securities.
Q3. Which authority will supervise cryptocurrency exchanges in Turkmenistan?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Central Bank of Turkmenistan
C) Ministry of Digital Economy
D) National Security Council
Answer: (B) Central Bank of Turkmenistan
Explanation: Exchanges will be licensed and overseen by the central bank.
Q4. According to the legislation, cryptocurrencies in Turkmenistan are:
A) Recognised as legal tender
B) Recognised as securities
C) Not recognised as legal tender or securities
D) Fully decentralised and unregulated
Answer: (C) Not recognised as legal tender or securities
Explanation: The law limits cryptocurrencies strictly to asset transactions.
Q5. What is one strategic reason behind Turkmenistan’s crypto legislation?
A) To replace natural gas exports
B) To liberalise the entire economy fully
C) To cautiously modernise the economy without losing state control
D) To encourage uncontrolled internet freedom
Answer: (C) To cautiously modernise the economy without losing state control
Explanation: The move reflects selective opening while maintaining strict overall control.
Q6. What other reform related to travel was introduced in Turkmenistan recently?
A) Open border policy with neighbours
B) Electronic visa system introduced in 2024
C) Removal of all travel restrictions
D) Visa-free entry for all foreigners
Answer: (B) Electronic visa system introduced in 2024
Explanation: E-visa was introduced to simplify entry, despite strict controls elsewhere.
Badalta Bharat Mera Anubhav Campaign: Key MCQs for Competitive Exams
Q1. Which ministry organised the Badalta Bharat Mera Anubhav campaign?
(a) Ministry of Culture
(b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(c) Ministry of External Affairs
(d) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
Answer: (b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Explanation: The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting organised the Badalta Bharat Mera Anubhav campaign in collaboration with the MyGov platform to engage citizens in sharing stories of India’s transformation.
Q2. What is the main objective of the Badalta Bharat Mera Anubhav campaign?
(a) To promote foreign investments
(b) To document citizens’ personal stories reflecting India’s development over the last 11 years
(c) To encourage tourism in India
(d) To launch new government schemes
Answer: (b) To document citizens’ personal stories reflecting India’s development over the last 11 years
Explanation: The campaign invited citizens to share creative expressions and personal experiences highlighting governance reforms and development initiatives in India.
Q3. Which platform collaborated with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting for the campaign?
(a) Digital India
(b) MyGov
(c) Startup India
(d) Swachh Bharat
Answer: (b) MyGov
Explanation: The campaign was organised jointly by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and the MyGov platform to ensure wider citizen participation.
Q4. Who won the first prize in the Badalta Bharat Mera Anubhav Instagram Reel Contest?
(a) Manthan Rohit
(b) Sushovan Manna
(c) Indrajeet Subodh Mashankar
(d) Krishna Gupta
Answer: (c) Indrajeet Subodh Mashankar
Explanation: Indrajeet Subodh Mashankar won the top prize in the Instagram Reel category of the campaign.
Q5. The Badalta Bharat Mera Anubhav campaign aligns with which national vision?
(a) Make in India
(b) Digital India
(c) Viksit Bharat@2047
(d) Atmanirbhar Bharat
Answer: (c) Viksit Bharat@2047
Explanation: The campaign supports the vision of Viksit Bharat@2047 by encouraging citizens to reflect on India’s progress and development through their creative stories.
9th Siddha Day 2026: Important MCQs for Competitive Exams
Q1. Siddha Day is observed annually on which date?
(a) 3 January
(b) 6 January
(c) 15 January
(d) 26 January
Answer: (b) 6 January
Explanation: Siddha Day is celebrated every year on 6 January to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sage Agathiyar, the father of Siddha medicine.
Q2. Who is regarded as the father of the Siddha system of medicine?
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Sage Agathiyar
(d) Patanjali
Answer: (c) Sage Agathiyar
Explanation: Sage Agathiyar is recognized as the founder and father of the Siddha medical tradition, which originated in Tamil Nadu.
Q3. Where will the 9th Siddha Day be celebrated in 2026?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Bengaluru
Answer: (b) Chennai
Explanation: The 9th Siddha Day in 2026 will be celebrated at Kalaivanar Arangam, Chennai, in collaboration with national and state Siddha institutions.
Q4. What is the theme of the Siddha Day celebrations in 2026?
(a) Siddha for Sustainable Development
(b) Siddha for Global Health
(c) Siddha for Digital India
(d) Siddha for Youth Empowerment
Answer: (b) Siddha for Global Health
Explanation: The 2026 theme “Siddha for Global Health” reflects the government’s goal to integrate Siddha medicine within international health frameworks.
Q5. Which high dignitary is expected to inaugurate the 9th Siddha Day event in 2026?
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Vice President of India
(d) Minister of Health and Family Welfare
Answer: (c) Vice President of India
Explanation: Shri C. P. Radhakrishnan, Vice President of India, is scheduled to inaugurate and preside over the Siddha Day celebrations in 2026.
World Braille Day: Important MCQs for Competitive Exams
Q1. On which date is World Braille Day observed globally?
(a) January 3
(b) January 4
(c) January 5
(d) January 6
Answer: (b) January 4
Explanation: World Braille Day is observed every year on January 4 to honour the birth anniversary of Louis Braille, the inventor of the Braille system.
Q2. Who invented the Braille system?
(a) Alexander Graham Bell
(b) Thomas Edison
(c) Louis Braille
(d) Helen Keller
Answer: (c) Louis Braille
Explanation: Louis Braille invented the tactile reading and writing system using six raised dots in 1824, enabling visually impaired individuals to read through touch.
Q3. What is the basis of the Braille reading system?
(a) Raised lines
(b) Six raised dots in patterns
(c) Colored symbols
(d) Digital screens
Answer: (b) Six raised dots in patterns
Explanation: Braille characters are formed using patterns of six raised dots that are read by touching with the fingertips.
Q4. Which organisation in India organised a function to mark World Braille Day recently?
(a) National Institute of Vision
(b) National Federation of the Blind
(c) Indian Council of Medical Research
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Answer: (b) National Federation of the Blind
Explanation: The National Federation of the Blind in New Delhi organised a function to commemorate World Braille Day and launched an awareness initiative called “More Braille More Empowerment.”
Q5. What is one of the key social roles of Braille mentioned during World Braille Day?
(a) To support digital communication
(b) To promote employment only
(c) To enable access, equality, and social inclusion for visually impaired persons
(d) To replace all assistive technologies
Answer: (c) To enable access, equality, and social inclusion for visually impaired persons
Explanation: Braille plays a vital role in literacy, education, social inclusion, and independence for visually impaired individuals, ensuring their equal participation in society.
ICAR Releases 184 New Crop Varieties: Important MCQs for Competitive Exam
Q1. How many new crop varieties were released by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) recently?
(a) 150
(b) 184
(c) 200
(d) 220
Answer: (b) 184
Explanation: ICAR released 184 new varieties covering 25 crops to improve productivity, climate resilience, and food security in India.
Q2. Which crop had the highest number of new varieties released by ICAR?
(a) Maize
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Pulses
Answer: (c) Rice
Explanation: Among the new varieties, 60 were of rice, the highest for any crop, reflecting India’s leadership in rice production.
Q3. What significant milestone did India achieve in rice production as mentioned by Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan?
(a) Crossing 100 million tonnes
(b) Crossing 150 million tonnes
(c) Becoming the second-largest producer after China
(d) Reducing rice exports
Answer: (b) Crossing 150 million tonnes
Explanation: India’s rice production crossed 150 million tonnes in 2025, making it the world’s largest rice-producing and exporting country.
Q4. What new legislative proposal did the Agriculture Minister mention regarding the seed sector?
(a) Fertilizer Regulation Bill
(b) Seed Bill
(c) Pesticide Control Act
(d) Crop Insurance Scheme
Answer: (b) Seed Bill
Explanation: The government is considering introducing the Seed Bill to strengthen regulation, quality assurance, and transparency in the seed sector.
Q5. What approach is the government adopting for agricultural planning before the Rabi and Kharif seasons?
(a) Centralised planning only
(b) Six zonal-level regional conferences for tailored Krishi roadmaps
(c) International collaboration only
(d) Export restrictions on crops
Answer: (b) Six zonal-level regional conferences for tailored Krishi roadmaps
Explanation: The government holds zonal regional conferences to prepare comprehensive agricultural roadmaps suited to different states and agro-climatic zones.
DSIR Removes 3-Year Rule for Deep-Tech Startups: Important MCQs for Competitive Exams
Q1. Which government department announced the removal of the mandatory three-year existence requirement for deep-tech startups?
(a) Department of Biotechnology
(b) Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR)
(c) Department of Electronics and IT
(d) Department of Space
Answer: (b) Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR)
Explanation: DSIR under the Ministry of Science and Technology removed the three-year condition to help early-stage deep-tech startups gain recognition faster.
Q2. What is the main purpose of the Industrial Research and Development Promotion (IRDP) programme?
(a) To fund agricultural projects
(b) To promote industrial R&D and innovation
(c) To regulate export-import policies
(d) To manage space research
Answer: (b) To promote industrial R&D and innovation
Explanation: IRDP is designed to encourage research and development in industries, fostering innovation and technological advancement.
Q3. What is the key benefit of removing the three-year existence condition for deep-tech startups?
(a) Longer gestation periods for startups
(b) Early access to DSIR recognition, incentives, and infrastructure
(c) Requirement for more funding from foreign investors
(d) Reduced government oversight
Answer: (b) Early access to DSIR recognition, incentives, and infrastructure
Explanation: This reform enables startups to access support and credibility earlier, boosting innovation and scaling potential.
Q4. Which Union Minister announced this reform during DSIR’s 41st Foundation Day?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Jitendra Singh
(c) Nitin Gadkari
(d) Rajnath Singh
Answer: (b) Jitendra Singh
Explanation: Union Minister Jitendra Singh announced the removal of the three-year rule at DSIR’s 41st Foundation Day event.
Q5. Which of the following initiatives was NOT mentioned as part of new measures to strengthen India’s R&D ecosystem?
(a) Guidelines for Recognition of In-House R&D Centres
(b) PRISM Network Platform TOCIC Innovator Pulse
(c) Creative India 2025 under PRISM scheme
(d) Make in India Export Subsidy Programme
Answer: (d) Make in India Export Subsidy Programme
Explanation: The Make in India Export Subsidy Programme was not mentioned; the other three initiatives focus on innovation and collaboration in research.
India’s Fabless Semiconductor Ambitions and DLI Scheme
Q1. What percentage of a semiconductor chip’s value is attributed to design and intellectual property?
(a) 30%
(b) Over 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 90%
Answer: (b) Over 50%
Explanation: More than half of a chip’s value comes from design and intellectual property, making fabless design a strategic focus area for India.
Q2. Which ministry implements the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme under the Semicon India Programme?
(a) Ministry of Heavy Industries
(b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Defence
Answer: (b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Explanation: The DLI Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology to support India’s semiconductor design ecosystem.
Q3. What is the maximum reimbursement amount offered under the DLI Scheme for eligible design expenditure?
(a) ₹5 crore
(b) ₹10 crore
(c) ₹15 crore
(d) ₹20 crore
Answer: (c) ₹15 crore
Explanation: The DLI Scheme offers reimbursement up to ₹15 crore or 50% of eligible design expenses, whichever is lower.
Q4. What is the name of the shared national infrastructure centre that provides advanced design tools and prototyping facilities for chip designers in India?
(a) FabLab India
(b) ChipIN Centre
(c) Silicon Valley India
(d) TechCore Hub
Answer: (b) ChipIN Centre
Explanation: The ChipIN Centre, established by C-DAC, provides Electronic Design Automation tools, IP repositories, and prototyping support for startups and companies.
Q5. Approximately how many chip design projects have been sanctioned under the DLI Scheme so far?
(a) 10
(b) 24
(c) 50
(d) 100
Answer: (b) 24
Explanation: Under the DLI Scheme, 24 chip design projects have been approved across various domains including IoT, drones, microprocessors, and satellite communications.
Smart Green Aquaculture Farm in Telangana
Q1. What does RAS stand for in the context of aquaculture?
(a) Rapid Aquatic System
(b) Recirculatory Aquaculture System
(c) Regional Aquaculture Service
(d) Rainwater Aquaculture Setup
Answer: (b) Recirculatory Aquaculture System
Explanation: RAS refers to Recirculatory Aquaculture System, an advanced technology that recycles water for fish farming, enabling sustainable aquaculture.
Q2. Which fish species is being farmed year-round for the first time in tropical India at the Smart Green Aquaculture Farm?
(a) Catla
(b) Rohu
(c) Rainbow Trout
(d) Tilapia
Answer: (c) Rainbow Trout
Explanation: Rainbow trout, traditionally a cold-water fish, is now farmed successfully year-round in tropical Telangana using advanced RAS technology.
Q3. Where is India’s first tropical RAS-based Rainbow Trout Aquaculture Farm located?
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Telangana
(d) West Bengal
Answer: (c) Telangana
Explanation: The farm and research institute is established in Kandukur Mandal, Ranga Reddy district, Telangana.
Q4. What is the approximate total central government investment in fisheries since 2015?
(a) ₹10,000 crore
(b) ₹25,000 crore
(c) ₹38,000 crore
(d) ₹50,000 crore
Answer: (c) ₹38,000 crore
Explanation: Since 2015, the central government has approved or announced investments exceeding ₹38,000 crore for fisheries development.
Q5. Which states currently have clusters for cold water fisheries development in India?
(a) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan
(b) Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
(d) Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (b) Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: These Himalayan and hill states have cold water fisheries clusters to promote trout farming and related aquaculture activities.
Rajasthan Regional AI Impact Conference 2026
Q1. When will the Rajasthan Regional AI Impact Conference 2026 be held?
(a) January 4, 2026
(b) January 5, 2026
(c) January 6, 2026
(d) January 7, 2026
Answer: (c) January 6, 2026
Explanation: The conference is scheduled for January 6, 2026, in Jaipur as a lead-up to the India AI Impact Summit 2026.
Q2. Which academic institution is providing research inputs at the Rajasthan Regional AI Impact Conference 2026?
(a) IIT Delhi
(b) IIT Bombay
(c) IIT Jodhpur
(d) IISc Bangalore
Answer: (c) IIT Jodhpur
Explanation: IIT Jodhpur contributes academic and research expertise to strengthen AI strategies discussed at the conference.
Q3. Which of the following is NOT a focus area of the Rajasthan Regional AI Impact Conference 2026?
(a) Ethical and responsible AI
(b) AI for public service delivery and governance
(c) Space exploration using AI
(d) Future of employment and skills in an AI-driven economy
Answer: (c) Space exploration using AI
Explanation: The conference focuses on governance, ethics, employment, and advanced AI applications, but not specifically on space exploration.
Q4. The Rajasthan Regional AI Impact Conference 2026 is part of which larger event series?
(a) India Digital Summit
(b) India AI Impact Summit 2026
(c) Global Tech Expo
(d) National Innovation Festival
Answer: (b) India AI Impact Summit 2026
Explanation: This regional conference is organized as a preparatory event feeding into the national-level India AI Impact Summit 2026.
Q5. What special advanced application will be highlighted at the conference?
(a) Blockchain integration
(b) Quantum computing
(c) Digital Twins and AI-led infrastructure planning
(d) Cryptocurrency development
Answer: (c) Digital Twins and AI-led infrastructure planning
Explanation: The conference will focus on advanced AI applications such as Digital Twins and AI-based planning for infrastructure development.
Grand International Exposition of Piprahwa Relics
Q1. Who inaugurated the Grand International Exposition of Sacred Piprahwa Relics in New Delhi?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice President of India
(c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(d) Minister of Culture
Answer: (c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the exposition titled “The Light and the Lotus: Relics of the Awakened One” at Rai Pithora Cultural Complex.
Q2. In which year were the Piprahwa relics originally discovered?
(a) 1888
(b) 1898
(c) 1908
(d) 1918
Answer: (b) 1898
Explanation: The sacred Piprahwa relics linked to Bhagwan Buddha were discovered in 1898.
Q3. The Piprahwa site is widely associated with which ancient place linked to Lord Buddha’s early life?
(a) Lumbini
(b) Sarnath
(c) Kapilavastu
(d) Bodh Gaya
Answer: (c) Kapilavastu
Explanation: Piprahwa is believed to be connected to ancient Kapilavastu, where Buddha spent his early years before renunciation.
Q4. Which language, the original medium of Lord Buddha’s teachings, has been accorded classical language status by the Indian government?
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrit
(c) Pali
(d) Tamil
Answer: (c) Pali
Explanation: Pali, the language of Buddha’s original teachings, has been granted classical language status in India.
Q5. Which two museums’ Piprahwa relics were reunified for the exposition after more than a century?
(a) National Museum and Indian Museum
(b) Victoria Memorial and National Museum
(c) Indian Museum and Gandhi Museum
(d) National Gallery of Modern Art and Indian Museum
Answer: (a) National Museum and Indian Museum
Explanation: The Piprahwa relics preserved at the National Museum and Indian Museum were brought together after 127 years for this exposition.
Mount Bur Ni Telong Volcanic Alert in Indonesia
Q1. Where is Mount Bur Ni Telong located?
(a) Java, Indonesia
(b) Aceh province, Indonesia
(c) Bali, Indonesia
(d) Sumatra, Malaysia
Answer: (b) Aceh province, Indonesia
Explanation: Mount Bur Ni Telong is an active stratovolcano located in the Bener Meriah regency of Aceh province in Indonesia.
Q2. What type of volcano is Mount Bur Ni Telong?
(a) Shield volcano
(b) Cinder cone
(c) Stratovolcano
(d) Caldera volcano
Answer: (c) Stratovolcano
Explanation: Mount Bur Ni Telong is classified as a stratovolcano, characterized by steep profiles and explosive eruptions.
Q3. What volcanic alert level was Mount Bur Ni Telong raised to on December 30, 2025?
(a) Level I
(b) Level II
(c) Level III
(d) Level IV
Answer: (b) Level II
Explanation: The alert was raised from Level III to Level II, which is the second highest alert level, due to increased volcanic and seismic activity.
Q4. What kind of volcanic eruption involves steam-driven explosions without magma reaching the surface?
(a) Effusive eruption
(b) Phreatic eruption
(c) Plinian eruption
(d) Strombolian eruption
Answer: (b) Phreatic eruption
Explanation: Phreatic eruptions are steam-driven explosions caused by water interacting with hot volcanic rocks, without magma surfacing.
Q5. How far are residents advised to stay away from Mount Bur Ni Telong’s crater?
(a) 1 kilometre
(b) 2 kilometres
(c) 3 kilometres
(d) 4 kilometres
Answer: (d) 4 kilometres
Explanation: Residents and visitors are advised to maintain a safe distance of at least 4 kilometres from the crater due to hazards from volcanic gases and eruptions.
Eastern Imperial Eagle Sighted at Mudumalai Tiger Reserve
Q1. What is the scientific name of the Eastern Imperial Eagle?
(a) Aquila chrysaetos
(b) Aquila heliaca
(c) Haliaeetus leucoryphus
(d) Circus aeruginosus
Answer: (b) Aquila heliaca
Explanation: The Eastern Imperial Eagle’s scientific name is Aquila heliaca.
Q2. During which season is the Eastern Imperial Eagle sighted at Mudumalai Tiger Reserve?
(a) Summer
(b) Monsoon
(c) Winter
(d) Spring
Answer: (c) Winter
Explanation: The Eastern Imperial Eagle is a winter migratory raptor, visiting Mudumalai Tiger Reserve during the winter season.
Q3. Which other endangered bird was seen alongside the Eastern Imperial Eagle in Mudumalai?
(a) Indian Vulture
(b) Egyptian Vulture
(c) White-rumped Vulture
(d) Himalayan Griffon
Answer: (b) Egyptian Vulture
Explanation: An endangered Egyptian Vulture was seen alongside the Eastern Imperial Eagle, highlighting the significance of the sighting.
Q4. What type of habitat does the Eastern Imperial Eagle prefer for breeding?
(a) Dense tropical forest
(b) Forest-steppe with scattered trees and open hunting grounds
(c) Coastal mangroves
(d) Desert scrubland
Answer: (b) Forest-steppe with scattered trees and open hunting grounds
Explanation: The Eastern Imperial Eagle breeds in forest-steppe habitats with scattered trees and open landscapes suitable for hunting.
Q5. Why is Mudumalai Tiger Reserve important for raptors like the Eastern Imperial Eagle?
(a) It has large water bodies
(b) It provides open grasslands, forest edges, tall trees for nesting, and abundant prey with minimal human disturbance
(c) It is an urban park
(d) It is a coastal habitat
Answer: (b) It provides open grasslands, forest edges, tall trees for nesting, and abundant prey with minimal human disturbance
Explanation: These features make Mudumalai Tiger Reserve an ideal wintering habitat for migratory raptors.
Galaxy Frog and Wildlife Photography Threat
Q1. What is the scientific name of the galaxy frog?
(a) Rhacophorus malabaricus
(b) Melanobatrachus indicus
(c) Nyctibatrachus aliciae
(d) Indirana leithii
Answer: (b) Melanobatrachus indicus
Explanation: The galaxy frog’s scientific name is Melanobatrachus indicus, and it is endemic to Kerala’s Western Ghats.
Q2. What unique characteristic does the galaxy frog exhibit regarding its mating behavior?
(a) It produces loud mating calls
(b) It does not produce mating calls
(c) It changes colour during mating
(d) It mates underwater
Answer: (b) It does not produce mating calls
Explanation: Unlike most frogs, the galaxy frog does not produce mating calls, which complicates population and breeding studies.
Q3. What human activity has recently posed a significant threat to the galaxy frog population?
(a) Illegal hunting
(b) Deforestation
(c) Unethical wildlife photography
(d) Pollution
Answer: (c) Unethical wildlife photography
Explanation: Photographers disturbed the frogs by overturning logs, trampling vegetation, handling them, and using intense camera flashes.
Q4. Why are amphibians like the galaxy frog highly sensitive to physical handling and environmental disturbance?
(a) They have hard, dry skin
(b) They rely on moist skin for respiration
(c) They are large in size
(d) They can fly away easily
Answer: (b) They rely on moist skin for respiration
Explanation: Amphibians respire through their moist skin, making them vulnerable to heat, dryness, and handling stress.
Q5. What conservation measure is suggested to protect the galaxy frog from disturbance?
(a) Banning all forest visits
(b) Strict ethical standards for nature photography and habitat protection
(c) Captive breeding only
(d) Increasing tourism to raise awareness
Answer: (b) Strict ethical standards for nature photography and habitat protection
Explanation: Ethical guidelines include avoiding handling animals, limiting flash use, and minimizing habitat disturbance to protect sensitive species.
Sandalwood Leopard: Rare Leopard Colour Morph in Karnataka
Q1. What is the informal name given to the rare leopard colour morph recently sighted in Karnataka?
(a) Black Panther
(b) Golden Leopard
(c) Sandalwood Leopard
(d) Snow Leopard
Answer: (c) Sandalwood Leopard
Explanation: The rare pale reddish-pink leopard colour morph has been informally named the Sandalwood Leopard.
Q2. Where was the Sandalwood Leopard sighted in Karnataka?
(a) Bandipur National Park
(b) Nagarhole Forest
(c) Vijayanagara district
(d) Coorg
Answer: (c) Vijayanagara district
Explanation: The sighting was documented in the Vijayanagara district of Karnataka.
Q3. What distinguishes the Sandalwood Leopard from typical Indian leopards?
(a) It has a completely black coat.
(b) It has a pale reddish-pink coat with light-brown rosettes.
(c) It has a white coat with black spots.
(d) It is larger in size.
Answer: (b) It has a pale reddish-pink coat with light-brown rosettes.
Explanation: The Sandalwood Leopard has a distinct pale reddish-pink coat with light-brown rosettes, unlike the usual tawny coat.
Q4. Which genetic conditions are believed to cause this rare colour morph?
(a) Albinism and leucism
(b) Hypomelanism and erythrism
(c) Melanism and leucism
(d) Polymorphism and melanism
Answer: (b) Hypomelanism and erythrism
Explanation: Hypomelanism (reduced melanin) and erythrism (increased reddish pigmentation) are suggested causes.
Q5. How many confirmed sightings of this rare leopard morph have been recorded globally?
(a) Only 1
(b) About 5
(c) Around 20
(d) More than 50
Answer: (b) About 5
Explanation: Globally, the Sandalwood Leopard morph has been recorded only about five times, including in India.
Andhra Pradesh Leads in Investment in FY26
Q1. Which Indian state captured the largest share of proposed investments in the first nine months of FY26?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Odisha
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Telangana
Answer: (c) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh accounted for 25.3% of total proposed investments, leading all states.
Q2. According to the Bank of Baroda report, what was the total value of investment announcements in the first nine months of FY26?
(a) ₹15 lakh crore
(b) ₹26.6 lakh crore
(c) ₹30 lakh crore
(d) ₹10 lakh crore
Answer: (b) ₹26.6 lakh crore
Explanation: Investment announcements rose to ₹26.6 lakh crore, an 11.5% increase year-on-year.
Q3. What key factor did Andhra Pradesh’s Chief Minister credit for the state’s investment success?
(a) Large population
(b) Forward-looking reforms and speed of doing business
(c) Natural resources
(d) Foreign direct investment alone
Answer: (b) Forward-looking reforms and speed of doing business
Explanation: The CM highlighted policy reforms and efficient incentive distribution as crucial.
Q4. Which state ranked second after Andhra Pradesh in proposed investments share in FY26?
(a) Telangana
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Odisha
(d) Gujarat
Answer: (c) Odisha
Explanation: Odisha accounted for 13.1% of proposed investments, second after Andhra Pradesh.
Q5. What broader trend is indicated by the investment data from Bank of Baroda?
(a) Increasing investments in northern India
(b) Shift in industrial momentum towards eastern and southern India
(c) Decline in investments overall
(d) Concentration in metropolitan cities only
Answer: (b) Shift in industrial momentum towards eastern and southern India
Explanation: The data shows growing industrial activity and investments in eastern and southern states.
Exhibition of Sacred Piprahwa Relics of Lord Buddha — Important MCQs for Competitive Exams
Q1. What is the title of the international exhibition inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi showcasing the Piprahwa relics?
(a) The Light & the Lotus: Relics of the Awakened One
(b) The Sacred Journey of Buddha
(c) Buddha’s Heritage: The Eternal Light
(d) The Awakening: Relics of India
Answer: (a) The Light & the Lotus: Relics of the Awakened One
Explanation: The exhibition is titled “The Light & the Lotus: Relics of the Awakened One”.
Q2. After how many years were the Piprahwa relics reunited and displayed in this exhibition?
(a) 100 years
(b) 127 years
(c) 150 years
(d) 75 years
Answer: (b) 127 years
Explanation: The Piprahwa relics were reunited after 127 years.
Q3. Where is the Piprahwa exhibition being held?
(a) National Museum, New Delhi
(b) Indian Museum, Kolkata
(c) Rai Pithora Cultural Complex, New Delhi
(d) National Gallery of Modern Art, Mumbai
Answer: (c) Rai Pithora Cultural Complex, New Delhi
Explanation: The exhibition is held at the Rai Pithora Cultural Complex in New Delhi.
Q4. Which archaeological site is associated with the sacred relics displayed in the exhibition?
(a) Nalanda
(b) Sarnath
(c) Piprahwa
(d) Bodh Gaya
Answer: (c) Piprahwa
Explanation: The relics are from the Piprahwa site, excavated in 1898 and later.
Q5. What message did Prime Minister Modi convey about the exhibition?
(a) It aims to promote modern art in India.
(b) It reflects India’s commitment to popularise Buddha’s teachings and cultural values.
(c) It focuses on India’s scientific achievements.
(d) It is primarily a diplomatic event.
Answer: (b) It reflects India’s commitment to popularise Buddha’s teachings and cultural values.
Explanation: PM Modi highlighted the exhibition as a step to connect youth with civilisational values and Buddha’s noble teachings.
FDA Approval of Oral Pill for Anaemia in Thalassemia
Q1. What is the name of the first-ever oral pill approved by the US FDA for treating anaemia in adults with thalassemia?
(a) Hydroxyurea
(b) Mitapivat
(c) Desferal
(d) Aqvesme
Answer: (b) Mitapivat
Explanation: Mitapivat is the drug approved, marketed under the brand name Aqvesme.
Q2. What type of drug is mitapivat?
(a) Iron chelator
(b) Blood transfusion substitute
(c) Pyruvate kinase activator
(d) Bone marrow stimulant
Answer: (c) Pyruvate kinase activator
Explanation: Mitapivat activates pyruvate kinase to improve red blood cell survival.
Q3. For which forms of thalassemia is mitapivat approved?
(a) Only transfusion-dependent thalassemia
(b) Only non-transfusion-dependent thalassemia
(c) Both transfusion-dependent and non-transfusion-dependent thalassemia
(d) Neither form
Answer: (c) Both transfusion-dependent and non-transfusion-dependent thalassemia
Explanation: The drug is approved for both forms.
Q4. What is the primary benefit of mitapivat in thalassemia patients?
(a) It increases iron absorption.
(b) It reduces the need for frequent blood transfusions.
(c) It replaces bone marrow transplantation.
(d) It cures thalassemia permanently.
Answer: (b) It reduces the need for frequent blood transfusions.
Explanation: Mitapivat helps red blood cells survive longer, raising haemoglobin and reducing transfusion frequency.
Q5. Why is the approval of mitapivat considered a “game changer” in thalassemia treatment?
(a) It is the first injectable therapy for thalassemia.
(b) It directly targets the cellular cause of anaemia.
(c) It completely cures thalassemia.
(d) It is effective only in children.
Answer: (b) It directly targets the cellular cause of anaemia.
Explanation: Mitapivat acts on metabolic dysfunction in red blood cells, unlike previous therapies that manage symptoms.
Q6. Which country has one of the highest burdens of thalassemia, making this drug particularly significant?
(a) United States
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Brazil
Answer: (b) India
Explanation: India has nearly one-eighth of the global thalassemia patient population.
Indigenously Manufactured 3D-Printed Automatic Weather Stations in India
Q1. Which technology has been used by Indian scientists to manufacture the new Automatic Weather Stations (AWS)?
(a) Nanotechnology
(b) 3D printing
(c) Artificial Intelligence
(d) Laser cutting
Answer: (b) 3D printing
Explanation: The new AWS units are fully manufactured using 3D-printing technology.
Q2. Under which national programme are these 3D-printed AWS being developed and deployed?
(a) Digital India
(b) Mission Indradhanush
(c) Mission Mausam
(d) National Weather Initiative
Answer: (c) Mission Mausam
Explanation: The project is part of Mission Mausam, aimed at upgrading meteorological infrastructure.
Q3. What is the approximate budget allocated for the Mission Mausam programme?
(a) ₹500 crore
(b) ₹1,000 crore
(c) ₹2,000 crore
(d) ₹5,000 crore
Answer: (c) ₹2,000 crore
Explanation: Mission Mausam is a ₹2,000 crore national programme.
Q4. Which city will first receive the deployment of these 3D-printed AWS units?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
Answer: (d) Delhi
Explanation: Delhi will be the first city to receive the new stations.
Q5. What are the key weather parameters recorded by these Automatic Weather Stations?
(a) Temperature, wind speed, humidity, rainfall
(b) Soil moisture, air pollution, rainfall, cloud cover
(c) Wind speed, solar radiation, snowfall, humidity
(d) Temperature, seismic activity, rainfall, humidity
Answer: (a) Temperature, wind speed, humidity, rainfall
Explanation: These are the primary parameters recorded and transmitted by the AWS.
Q6. What is a significant advantage of using 3D-printing technology in manufacturing AWS?
(a) Increases weight of the stations
(b) Enables flexible design and reduces production cost
(c) Requires imported materials
(d) Reduces data accuracy
Answer: (b) Enables flexible design and reduces production cost
Explanation: 3D printing allows flexible geometric design and faster, cost-effective production.
Q7. Which Indian institution is leading the AWS development initiative?
(a) Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
(b) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
(c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(d) National Institute of Oceanography (NIO)
Answer: (b) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
Explanation: IITM is leading this initiative under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Q8. How are the AWS powered for deployment in remote and urban locations?
(a) Battery-operated
(b) Solar-powered
(c) Diesel generators
(d) Wind turbines
Answer: (b) Solar-powered
Explanation: All new AWS units are solar-powered.
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Iran’s Economic Crisis and Central Bank Leadership Change
Q1. Who has been appointed as the new governor of the Central Bank of the Islamic Republic of Iran?
(a) Mohammad Reza Farzin
(b) Abdolnasser Hemmati
(c) Masoud Pezeshkian
(d) Ali Larijani
Answer: (b) Abdolnasser Hemmati
Explanation: Abdolnasser Hemmati, a former economics minister, was appointed as the new central bank governor amid Iran’s economic crisis and currency collapse.
Q2. What economic issue triggered widespread protests across Iran in 2025–26?
(a) Foreign investment surge
(b) Sharp depreciation of the Iranian rial and high inflation
(c) Increased exports
(d) Decrease in oil prices
Answer: (b) Sharp depreciation of the Iranian rial and high inflation
Explanation: The Iranian rial’s rapid fall against the US dollar, combined with inflation around 40%, led to soaring prices and public protests.
Q3. Which currency rate did the Iranian rial reach against the US dollar during the crisis?
(a) 430,000 rials per US dollar
(b) 1.38 million rials per US dollar
(c) 1 million rials per US dollar
(d) 500,000 rials per US dollar
Answer: (b) 1.38 million rials per US dollar
Explanation: The Iranian rial fell to about 1.38 million rials per US dollar, a historic low worsening the economic crisis.
Q4. What role does the Central Bank of Iran play in the country’s economy?
(a) Regulates monetary policy and currency management
(b) Controls foreign relations
(c) Manages oil exports
(d) Oversees agriculture production
Answer: (a) Regulates monetary policy and currency management
Explanation: The Central Bank of Iran is responsible for managing the country’s currency and monetary policies.
Q5. How did the US respond to the protests and unrest in Iran?
(a) Provided economic aid
(b) Warned of intervention if peaceful protesters were killed
(c) Supported the Iranian government
(d) Ignored the situation
Answer: (b) Warned of intervention if peaceful protesters were killed
Explanation: US President Donald Trump warned Washington would intervene if peaceful protests were violently suppressed, escalating diplomatic tensions.
Haryana’s Improved Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) in 2025
Q1. What was Haryana’s sex ratio at birth (SRB) in 2025, marking the highest level in five years?
(a) 910
(b) 923
(c) 950
(d) 871
Answer: (b) 923
Explanation: Haryana’s SRB improved to 923 females per 1,000 males in 2025, a 13-point increase from 910 in 2024, reflecting positive outcomes of enforcement measures.
Q2. Which district recorded the highest SRB in Haryana in 2025?
(a) Fatehabad
(b) Panipat
(c) Panchkula
(d) Gurugram
Answer: (c) Panchkula
Explanation: Panchkula topped Haryana’s districts with an SRB of 971, showing significant improvement from 915 in 2024.
Q3. Under which act were 154 raids conducted in Haryana in 2025 to curb sex-selective practices?
(a) MTP Act
(b) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Act
(c) Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC-PNDT) Act
(d) Child Labour Act
Answer: (c) Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC-PNDT) Act
Explanation: The PC-PNDT Act aims to prevent sex selection before or after conception, and Haryana conducted 154 raids under this law in 2025.
Q4. What role did the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao campaign play in Haryana’s SRB improvement?
(a) It launched economic reforms
(b) It intensified monitoring and enforcement against gender-biased practices
(c) It promoted industrial development
(d) It increased agricultural production
Answer: (b) It intensified monitoring and enforcement against gender-biased practices
Explanation: After the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao campaign was launched in Panipat in 2015, Haryana increased administrative oversight leading to measurable gains in SRB.
Q5. Which of the following actions was NOT part of Haryana’s crackdown on illegal sex determination and abortions in 2025?
(a) Sealing of chemist shops
(b) Shutdown of medical termination of pregnancy centres
(c) Registration of FIRs under the MTP Act
(d) Launch of new hospitals for maternal health
Answer: (d) Launch of new hospitals for maternal health
Explanation: Haryana’s crackdown included raids, sealing of chemist shops, closure of illegal centres, and FIRs, but launching new hospitals was not mentioned as part of these enforcement actions.
Assam’s Welfare Scheme for Udasin Bhakats: Important MCQs for Competitive Exams
Q1. Who are ‘Udasin Bhakats’ for whom Assam government announced a welfare scheme?
(a) Tribal leaders of Assam
(b) Celibate monks residing in Assam’s satras
(c) Local farmers in Assam
(d) Members of Assam’s legislative assembly
Answer: (b) Celibate monks residing in Assam’s satras
Explanation: Udasin Bhakats are celibate monks who live permanently in Assam’s historic Vaishnavite monasteries called satras.
Q2. What is the monthly financial assistance amount provided to eligible Udasin Bhakats under the Assam government scheme?
(a) Rs 1,000
(b) Rs 1,500
(c) Rs 2,000
(d) Rs 2,500
Answer: (b) Rs 1,500
Explanation: The scheme provides Rs 1,500 per month to each eligible Udasin Bhakat to support their basic personal needs.
Q3. What is the primary purpose of Assam’s welfare initiative for Udasin Bhakats?
(a) To build new satras across Assam
(b) To provide direct financial assistance and symbolic recognition
(c) To promote tourism in Assam
(d) To offer free education to monks
Answer: (b) To provide direct financial assistance and symbolic recognition
Explanation: The initiative aims to offer financial support and acknowledge the monks’ lifelong spiritual discipline and cultural role.
Q4. What are ‘satras’ in the context of Assam’s cultural heritage?
(a) Tribal councils
(b) Vaishnavite monasteries promoting religion, art, and social reform
(c) Political organizations
(d) Traditional dance groups
Answer: (b) Vaishnavite monasteries promoting religion, art, and social reform
Explanation: Satras are centers of religious practice, education, and cultural preservation associated with Assam’s Ekasarana tradition.
Q5. How many Udasin Bhakats are expected to benefit from the Assam government’s welfare scheme?
(a) Around 500
(b) Around 620
(c) Around 1,000
(d) Around 800
Answer: (b) Around 620
Explanation: Approximately 620 monks living in recognised satras across Assam are eligible to receive the monthly financial assistance.
Tamil Nadu District Mineral Foundation (DMF) Rules, 2025
Q1. What is the primary purpose of the District Mineral Foundation (DMF) funds?
(a) For infrastructure development in urban areas
(b) For mining-affected communities and regions
(c) For promoting industrial exports
(d) For increasing mining production
Answer: (b) For mining-affected communities and regions
Explanation: DMF funds are intended to support communities and areas affected by mining activities, focusing on their welfare and development.
Q2. What is the key change in penalties under Tamil Nadu’s revised DMF Rules, 2025, compared to the 2017 rules?
(a) Introduction of custodial punishment
(b) Removal of imprisonment and emphasis on financial penalties with interest
(c) Reduction of financial penalties
(d) No penalties for violations
Answer: (b) Removal of imprisonment and emphasis on financial penalties with interest
Explanation: The 2025 rules replace imprisonment with a one-time financial penalty equal to the contribution plus 12% interest, focusing on faster compliance.
Q3. Who serves as the chairperson of the District Mineral Foundation Trust and its governing bodies under the revised rules?
(a) State Mining Secretary
(b) District Collector
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Mining Lease Holder
Answer: (b) District Collector
Explanation: The District Collector chairs the DMF Trust, its Managing Committee, and the Governing Council, overseeing fund utilisation and governance.
Q4. According to the 2025 DMF rules, what percentage of the Trust Fund must be spent on directly affected areas and high-priority sectors?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Answer: (c) 70%
Explanation: At least 70% of the DMF funds must be used for projects in directly affected mining areas, including sectors like drinking water, healthcare, and education.
Q5. What provision do the revised rules make for districts with annual DMF collections of ₹10 crore or more?
(a) They must return excess funds to the central government
(b) They must create an endowment fund of up to 10% of annual receipts
(c) They must reduce royalty payments
(d) They must invest in mining equipment
Answer: (b) They must create an endowment fund of up to 10% of annual receipts
Explanation: Districts with high DMF collections are required to maintain an endowment fund to support sustainable livelihoods in areas where mining has ceased.
IFFCO Sahitya Samman 2025 and Young Literary Award
Q1. Who received the IFFCO Sahitya Samman 2025 for outstanding contribution to Hindi literature?
(a) Ankita Jain
(b) Maitreyi Pushpa
(c) Vidyasagar Nautiyal
(d) Shekhar Joshi
Answer: (b) Maitreyi Pushpa
Explanation: Maitreyi Pushpa was honoured with the IFFCO Sahitya Samman 2025 for her authentic portrayal of rural society and agrarian realities in Hindi literature.
Q2. When was the IFFCO Sahitya Samman instituted?
(a) 2015
(b) 2011
(c) 2005
(d) 2020
Answer: (b) 2011
Explanation: The IFFCO Sahitya Samman was established in 2011 to recognise Hindi writers focusing on rural and agricultural life.
Q3. What is the cash prize amount associated with the IFFCO Sahitya Samman?
(a) ₹5 lakh
(b) ₹10 lakh
(c) ₹11 lakh
(d) ₹15 lakh
Answer: (c) ₹11 lakh
Explanation: The Sahitya Samman carries a cash prize of ₹11 lakh, along with a citation and memento.
Q4. Who received the IFFCO Young Literary Award 2025?
(a) Maitreyi Pushpa
(b) Sanjeev
(c) Ankita Jain
(d) Madhu Kankaria
Answer: (c) Ankita Jain
Explanation: Ankita Jain was honoured with the IFFCO Young Literary Award 2025 for her book “Oh Re! Kisan”.
Q5. What is the primary focus of the IFFCO Sahitya Samman award?
(a) Literature related to urban development
(b) Hindi literature depicting rural and agrarian life
(c) International literature translations
(d) Scientific research publications
Answer: (b) Hindi literature depicting rural and agrarian life
Explanation: The award recognises Hindi literary works that meaningfully reflect rural society and agricultural themes.
Bhoramdev Corridor Development Project
Q1. Where is the Bhoramdev Temple, the focus of the Bhoramdev Corridor Development Project, located?
(a) Raipur, Chhattisgarh
(b) Kabirdham district, Chhattisgarh
(c) Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh
(d) Durg, Chhattisgarh
Answer: (b) Kabirdham district, Chhattisgarh
Explanation: The Bhoramdev Temple is situated in Kabirdham district and is an important heritage site in Chhattisgarh.
Q2. Under which Central Government scheme is the Bhoramdev Corridor Development Project being implemented?
(a) Swachh Bharat Mission
(b) Smart Cities Mission
(c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme 2.0
(d) National Heritage Mission
Answer: (c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme 2.0
Explanation: The project is part of the Swadesh Darshan Scheme 2.0, focusing on theme-based sustainable tourism development.
Q3. Which heritage redevelopment project serves as the model for the Bhoramdev Corridor Development?
(a) Ajanta-Ellora Corridor
(b) Kashi Vishwanath Corridor
(c) Khajuraho Restoration Project
(d) Golden Temple Corridor
Answer: (b) Kashi Vishwanath Corridor
Explanation: The Bhoramdev project is being developed on the lines of the Kashi Vishwanath Corridor, integrating heritage conservation with modern amenities.
Q4. What is the estimated cost of the Bhoramdev Corridor Development Project?
(a) ₹100 crore
(b) ₹146 crore
(c) ₹200 crore
(d) ₹250 crore
Answer: (b) ₹146 crore
Explanation: The project is estimated to cost around ₹146 crore for enhancing infrastructure and visitor facilities.
Q5. What is a key objective of the Bhoramdev Corridor Development Project besides infrastructure improvement?
(a) Industrial development
(b) Enhancing pilgrimage infrastructure while preserving cultural heritage
(c) Urban housing development
(d) Expanding mining activities
Answer: (b) Enhancing pilgrimage infrastructure while preserving cultural heritage
Explanation: The project aims to balance tourism development with conservation of the temple’s cultural and architectural legacy.
India’s Rise in Global Pharmacovigilance and Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026
Q1. What is India’s current global rank in pharmacovigilance contributions to the World Health Organization (WHO)?
(a) 15th
(b) 8th
(c) 25th
(d) 123rd
Answer: (b) 8th
Explanation: India has improved to 8th position worldwide in pharmacovigilance contributions to WHO, up from 123rd a decade ago.
Q2. Who released the 10th edition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026?
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Union Health Minister J P Nadda
(c) President of India
(d) Director General of WHO
Answer: (b) Union Health Minister J P Nadda
Explanation: J P Nadda, the Union Health and Family Welfare Minister, released the Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026 in New Delhi.
Q3. How many new monographs have been added in the Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026 edition?
(a) 100
(b) 121
(c) 150
(d) 200
Answer: (b) 121
Explanation: The 10th edition includes 121 new monographs, bringing the total to 3,340 monographs.
Q4. What is a first-time inclusion in the Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026?
(a) Herbal medicine monographs
(b) Blood component monographs
(c) Vaccine monographs
(d) Antibiotic monographs
Answer: (b) Blood component monographs
Explanation: India is the first country globally to include blood component monographs in its official pharmacopoeia.
Q5. Which national health programmes will benefit from the expanded drug standards in the Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026?
(a) National TB Elimination Programme and Anaemia Mukt Bharat
(b) Swachh Bharat Mission
(c) Make in India Initiative
(d) Digital India Programme
Answer: (a) National TB Elimination Programme and Anaemia Mukt Bharat
Explanation: The expanded monographs support key health programmes like TB elimination, Anaemia Mukt Bharat, and the Universal Immunisation Programme.
National Textiles Ministers’ Conference 2026
Q1. When and where will the National Textiles Ministers’ Conference 2026 be held?
(a) 5–6 February 2026 in Delhi
(b) 8–9 January 2026 in Guwahati
(c) 10–11 March 2026 in Mumbai
(d) 15–16 April 2026 in Chennai
Answer: (b) 8–9 January 2026 in Guwahati
Explanation: The conference will be held on 8–9 January 2026 in Guwahati, Assam, as a platform to shape India’s textile sector strategy.
Q2. What is the theme of the National Textiles Ministers’ Conference 2026?
(a) “Textiles for Global Market”
(b) “India’s Textiles: Weaving Growth, Heritage & Innovation”
(c) “Sustainable Textile Future”
(d) “Handloom and Handicrafts Revival”
Answer: (b) “India’s Textiles: Weaving Growth, Heritage & Innovation”
Explanation: The theme highlights growth, heritage, and innovation in India’s textile industry.
Q3. What is India’s target for the textile industry size by 2030?
(a) USD 250 billion
(b) USD 300 billion
(c) USD 350 billion
(d) USD 400 billion
Answer: (c) USD 350 billion
Explanation: India aims to build a USD 350 billion textile industry by 2030.
Q4. Which region’s textiles sector will have a dedicated conclave during the conference?
(a) Western India
(b) North-Eastern Region
(c) Southern India
(d) Central India
Answer: (b) North-Eastern Region
Explanation: The conference includes a special conclave focusing on strengthening the textile sector of North-East India.
Q5. What are some key focus areas of the conference sessions?
(a) Mining and exports
(b) Infrastructure, exports, technical textiles, and revitalising handlooms
(c) Digital marketing only
(d) Automobile manufacturing
Answer: (b) Infrastructure, exports, technical textiles, and revitalising handlooms
Explanation: The sessions cover infrastructure, export growth, technical textiles, and the revival of traditional handlooms and handicrafts.
Live Events Development Cell and Growth of India’s Concert Economy
Q1. When was the Live Events Development Cell (LEDC) constituted by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting?
(a) July 2024
(b) January 2025
(c) July 2025
(d) December 2025
Answer: (c) July 2025
Explanation: The LEDC was established in July 2025 as a single-window facilitation mechanism to support the live events industry.
Q2. What was the market value of India’s organised live events sector in 2024?
(a) ₹15,000 crore
(b) ₹20,861 crore
(c) ₹25,000 crore
(d) ₹30,000 crore
Answer: (b) ₹20,861 crore
Explanation: India’s organised live events market was valued at ₹20,861 crore in 2024, reflecting rapid growth in this sector.
Q3. What is the projected compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of the live events sector in India?
(a) 10%
(b) 12%
(c) 15%
(d) 18%
Answer: (d) 18%
Explanation: The live events sector is expected to grow at a CAGR of 18%, positioning India as a global hub for live entertainment by 2030.
Q4. Which of the following is a key role of the Live Events Development Cell (LEDC)?
(a) Organising live concerts
(b) Streamlining approvals and addressing logistical challenges
(c) Funding all live events
(d) Broadcasting live events internationally
Answer: (b) Streamlining approvals and addressing logistical challenges
Explanation: The LEDC acts as a facilitator by improving coordination among stakeholders and easing regulatory and logistical processes.
Q5. Which city registered the highest growth in live entertainment footfalls according to the BookMyShow report for January–November 2025?
(a) Shillong
(b) Guwahati
(c) Vadodara
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer: (d) Visakhapatnam
Explanation: Visakhapatnam saw the highest growth of 490% in live entertainment attendance, highlighting the rising cultural significance of Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
Resumption of Live Thadou Language Broadcasts by Prasar Bharati
Q1. Which public broadcaster has initiated steps to resume live radio broadcasts in the Thadou language from All India Radio Imphal?
(a) Doordarshan
(b) Prasar Bharati
(c) AIR Nagaland
(d) Radio Mirchi
Answer: (b) Prasar Bharati
Explanation: Prasar Bharati, India’s public service broadcaster, is working to restart live Thadou language broadcasts from All India Radio (Akashvani) in Imphal.
Q2. Why did live Thadou language programmes from Akashvani Imphal stop in 2023?
(a) Technical issues with broadcasting equipment
(b) Departure of Thadou staff due to ethnic clashes
(c) Government policy changes
(d) Low audience demand
Answer: (b) Departure of Thadou staff due to ethnic clashes
Explanation: The live programmes stopped after ethnic tensions in Manipur in May 2023 caused Thadou staff to leave the Imphal valley for safety reasons.
Q3. What role does live regional language broadcasting play according to the context of the Thadou language resumption?
(a) Entertainment only
(b) Cultural preservation and identity support
(c) Political campaigning
(d) Commercial advertising
Answer: (b) Cultural preservation and identity support
Explanation: Broadcasting in the Thadou language supports the preservation of the tribe’s culture, language, and socio-cultural identity.
Q4. What significant assurance was given to encourage the return of Thadou broadcast staff?
(a) Higher salaries
(b) Mutual respect and peaceful coexistence
(c) New technology upgrades
(d) Relocation to safer cities
Answer: (b) Mutual respect and peaceful coexistence
Explanation: Peace meetings between communities provided assurances of mutual respect and safety to encourage staff to return without fear.
Q5. Under which official order is the Thadou tribe recognized as a distinct indigenous Scheduled Tribe of Manipur?
(a) 1947 Independence Act
(b) 1987 Tribal Welfare Act
(c) 1956 Presidential Order
(d) 2000 Scheduled Tribes Act
Answer: (c) 1956 Presidential Order
Explanation: The Thadou tribe is officially recognised under the 1956 Presidential Order as an independent indigenous tribe with its own language and culture.
Telangana Panchayat Raj Law Amendments and Public Service Bills 2026
Q1. What key change was made to the Telangana Panchayat Raj law in 2026 regarding local body elections?
(a) Introduction of a three-child norm
(b) Removal of the two-child disqualification norm
(c) Reservation of seats for women only
(d) Extension of election tenure
Answer: (b) Removal of the two-child disqualification norm
Explanation: The Telangana Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Bill, 2026 abolished the restriction that barred candidates with more than two children from contesting local body elections.
Q2. When was the two-child restriction for contesting Panchayat Raj elections originally introduced in Telangana?
(a) 1980
(b) 1990
(c) 1994
(d) 2000
Answer: (c) 1994
Explanation: The two-child norm was introduced in 1994 to address concerns related to population growth and socio-economic issues.
Q3. What is the current total fertility rate in rural Telangana as mentioned in the amendment discussion?
(a) 2.5
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.7
(d) 1.3
Answer: (c) 1.7
Explanation: The total fertility rate in rural Telangana has declined to 1.7 children per woman, indicating significant demographic changes.
Q4. What is the purpose of repealing the two-child norm in Telangana’s Panchayat Raj law?
(a) To increase political participation irrespective of family size
(b) To encourage larger families
(c) To reduce voter turnout
(d) To support urban population growth
Answer: (a) To increase political participation irrespective of family size
Explanation: The repeal aligns electoral laws with current demographic trends and aims to avoid impacting the State’s demographic dividend and workforce availability.
Q5. Which other significant legislative changes were passed by the Telangana Assembly along with Panchayat Raj amendments?
(a) Education reforms
(b) Public service appointments and pay structure rationalisation
(c) Environmental regulations
(d) Transport policies
Answer: (b) Public service appointments and pay structure rationalisation
Explanation: The Assembly passed Bills to regulate public service appointments and streamline staff patterns and pay, supporting administrative reforms in Telangana.
Specialised Training Programme in Cancer Care for BIMSTEC Countries
Q1. Where was the second phase of the Specialised Training Programme in Cancer Care for BIMSTEC countries launched?
(a) Tata Memorial Centre, Mumbai
(b) AIIMS, Delhi
(c) Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital and Research Centre, Visakhapatnam
(d) Regional Cancer Centre, Kolkata
Answer: (c) Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital and Research Centre, Visakhapatnam
Explanation: The second phase of the programme was launched at the Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital and Research Centre, which is a key regional oncology hub.
Q2. Which organisation is implementing the Specialised Training Programme in Cancer Care for BIMSTEC countries?
(a) AIIMS
(b) Tata Memorial Centre
(c) Indian Council of Medical Research
(d) National Cancer Institute
Answer: (b) Tata Memorial Centre
Explanation: The Tata Memorial Centre, India’s premier oncology institution, is responsible for implementing this regional cancer care training programme.
Q3. What is the main objective of the Specialised Training Programme in Cancer Care for BIMSTEC countries?
(a) To provide cancer drugs free of cost
(b) To enhance cancer diagnosis, treatment, and research capabilities
(c) To build new hospitals in member countries
(d) To fund cancer patient travel expenses
Answer: (b) To enhance cancer diagnosis, treatment, and research capabilities
Explanation: The programme aims to strengthen oncology services by equipping healthcare professionals with advanced skills and fostering regional cooperation.
Q4. BIMSTEC stands for which of the following?
(a) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
(b) Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and East Coast
(c) Bay Islands Maritime Security and Technical Economic Council
(d) Bay of Bengal International Medical and Scientific Technical Exchange Committee
Answer: (a) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
Explanation: BIMSTEC is a regional organisation promoting cooperation among Bay of Bengal countries in multiple sectors including health.
Q5. Which Indian Ministry supports the Specialised Training Programme in Cancer Care along with Tata Memorial Centre?
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Education
Answer: (b) Ministry of External Affairs
Explanation: The Ministry of External Affairs supports this initiative to promote regional health collaboration across BIMSTEC member countries.
India’s Largest Integrated Inland Rainbow Trout Farm in Telangana
Q1. Where has India’s largest integrated inland Rainbow Trout farm been inaugurated?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Telangana
Answer: (d) Telangana
Explanation: The farm was inaugurated in Telangana’s Ranga Reddy district, marking a breakthrough in inland cold-water aquaculture outside Himalayan regions.
Q2. Which species is cultured at the newly inaugurated integrated trout farm in Telangana?
(a) Catla
(b) Rohu
(c) Rainbow Trout
(d) Common Carp
Answer: (c) Rainbow Trout
Explanation: Rainbow Trout, a cold-water fish species traditionally farmed in Himalayan regions, is being cultured at this advanced inland facility.
Q3. What makes the Telangana trout farm unique compared to traditional trout farms in India?
(a) It uses seawater instead of freshwater
(b) It is located on the Deccan Plateau with warm climate conditions
(c) It breeds only ornamental fish
(d) It relies entirely on natural cold springs
Answer: (b) It is located on the Deccan Plateau with warm climate conditions
Explanation: The farm uses advanced engineering to control water temperature and oxygen, enabling trout farming in a warm, non-traditional region.
Q4. Which government board supports the export of trout fish from this new facility?
(a) Marine Products Export Development Authority
(b) National Fisheries Development Board
(c) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
(d) Inland Fisheries Export Council
Answer: (b) National Fisheries Development Board
Explanation: The National Fisheries Development Board supports fisheries development and export promotion, including trout fish exports.
Q5. What are some expected benefits of the integrated trout farm model in Telangana?
(a) Increased imports of fish
(b) Reduced employment opportunities
(c) Improved efficiency, cost reduction, and diversification of fish production
(d) Limiting fish production to traditional Himalayan areas
Answer: (c) Improved efficiency, cost reduction, and diversification of fish production
Explanation: The integrated farm combines breeding, rearing, and processing at one site, promoting technology-driven aquaculture and boosting food security and farmer incomes.
China’s Commissioning of Upgraded Type 052D Destroyer “Loudi”
Q1. What is the name of the newly commissioned upgraded guided missile destroyer inducted by China’s People’s Liberation Army Navy?
(a) Shenzhen
(b) Loudi
(c) Hangzhou
(d) Qingdao
Answer: (b) Loudi
Explanation: “Loudi” is the latest upgraded Type 052D guided missile destroyer recently commissioned into the Chinese Navy.
Q2. The Type 052D class of warships in the Chinese Navy is primarily classified as what type of vessel?
(a) Aircraft carrier
(b) Submarine
(c) Guided missile destroyer
(d) Amphibious assault ship
Answer: (c) Guided missile destroyer
Explanation: Type 052D destroyers are guided missile destroyers and form the backbone of China’s modern surface fleet.
Q3. Which of the following capabilities is enhanced in the upgraded Type 052D destroyer “Loudi”?
(a) Stealth technology only
(b) Radar, weapons, and networking systems
(c) Passenger capacity
(d) Underwater mine detection only
Answer: (b) Radar, weapons, and networking systems
Explanation: “Loudi” incorporates upgraded radar, weapons, and network-centric combat systems to improve multi-domain warfare performance.
Q4. What is the strategic role of the Type 052D destroyers in China’s naval expansion?
(a) Coastal patrol and fishing regulation
(b) Operating carrier strike groups and sustained blue-water operations
(c) Cargo transport and logistics
(d) Search and rescue missions only
Answer: (b) Operating carrier strike groups and sustained blue-water operations
Explanation: These destroyers support China’s ambitions for blue-water naval capabilities and carrier task force operations far from the coast.
Q5. Which navy is China aiming to match or challenge through its rapid naval expansion and commissioning of advanced warships like “Loudi”?
(a) Russian Navy
(b) Japanese Maritime Self-Defense Force
(c) United States Navy
(d) British Royal Navy
Answer: (c) United States Navy
Explanation: China’s naval build-up aims to narrow the maritime power gap with the United States Navy, the world’s leading naval force.
Launch of IITM Global: India’s First Multinational IIT Initiative
Q1. Who launched IITM Global, the initiative to make IIT Madras the world’s first multinational IIT?
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Union Education Minister
(c) Union External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar
(d) IIT Madras Director V Kamakoti
Answer: (c) Union External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar
Explanation: S Jaishankar launched IITM Global to expand IIT Madras’s presence internationally through campuses, research centres, and startups.
Q2. What is the primary goal of IITM Global?
(a) Increase student intake in India only
(b) Establish overseas campuses, research centres, and startup ecosystems
(c) Focus only on domestic research funding
(d) Limit collaboration within India
Answer: (b) Establish overseas campuses, research centres, and startup ecosystems
Explanation: IITM Global aims to position IIT Madras as a multinational institution with global research, innovation, and entrepreneurship hubs.
Q3. Which country was cited as an example where IIT Madras plans to establish an overseas campus?
(a) United States
(b) Tanzania
(c) Germany
(d) Singapore
Answer: (b) Tanzania
Explanation: An IIT Madras campus in Tanzania exemplifies India’s strategy to export technical expertise and support capacity-building abroad.
Q4. How many countries or regions does IIT Madras have MoUs with as part of the IITM Global initiative?
(a) Only in India
(b) USA, UK, Germany, Dubai, Asia-Pacific, and others
(c) Only USA and UK
(d) Only Asia-Pacific countries
Answer: (b) USA, UK, Germany, Dubai, Asia-Pacific, and others
Explanation: IIT Madras has signed multiple MoUs across diverse regions to foster global research and startup collaboration.
Q5. What is part of the four-pronged approach of the IITM Global Research Foundation?
(a) Focus only on undergraduate education
(b) Take IIT technologies abroad, joint development, connect startups internationally, attract foreign investment
(c) Limit research to theoretical studies
(d) Restrict collaborations to local startups
Answer: (b) Take IIT technologies abroad, joint development, connect startups internationally, attract foreign investment
Explanation: The strategy focuses on technology transfer, joint projects, startup internationalisation, and foreign investment attraction.
Indian Army Declares 2026 as the ‘Year of Networking & Data Centricity’
Q1. What significant theme has the Indian Army declared for the year 2026?
(a) Year of Infantry Excellence
(b) Year of Cyber Warfare
(c) Year of Networking & Data Centricity
(d) Year of Equipment Modernisation
Answer: (c) Year of Networking & Data Centricity
Explanation: The Indian Army declared 2026 as the ‘Year of Networking & Data Centricity’ to boost digitally integrated warfare and faster decision-making.
Q2. Who is the Army Chief who outlined the vision of the decade-long transformation?
(a) General Bipin Rawat
(b) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
(c) General Upendra Dwivedi
(d) General Dalbir Singh Suhag
Answer: (c) General Upendra Dwivedi
Explanation: Army Chief General Upendra Dwivedi emphasized the transformation focused on jointness, self-reliance, and innovation.
Q3. In military terms, what does ‘data centricity’ imply?
(a) Data is collected but rarely used
(b) Data is a core operational asset shared in real time across platforms
(c) Data is stored locally without sharing
(d) Data is used only for training purposes
Answer: (b) Data is a core operational asset shared in real time across platforms
Explanation: Data centricity means instant sharing of information from sensors and surveillance, enabling faster target engagement.
Q4. How does data-centricity improve joint military operations?
(a) By limiting communication between branches
(b) By enabling multiple platforms to access and act on the same data simultaneously
(c) By focusing only on ground forces
(d) By increasing response time
Answer: (b) By enabling multiple platforms to access and act on the same data simultaneously
Explanation: This improves coordination and effectiveness among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Q5. Which earlier initiative does the ‘Year of Networking & Data Centricity’ build upon?
(a) Year of Infantry Training 2023
(b) Year of Technology Absorption 2024
(c) Year of Strategic Partnerships 2022
(d) Year of Cyber Defence 2025
Answer: (b) Year of Technology Absorption 2024
Explanation: The 2026 initiative builds on the momentum created by declaring 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption’.
Pakistan Air Force Successfully Tests Taimoor Weapon System
Q1. What type of missile is the Taimoor Weapon System tested by the Pakistan Air Force?
(a) Surface-to-air missile
(b) Air-launched cruise missile
(c) Ballistic missile
(d) Anti-ship missile
Answer: (b) Air-launched cruise missile
Explanation: The Taimoor is an air-launched cruise missile with a range of 600 kilometres.
Q2. What is the maximum range of the Taimoor missile tested by Pakistan?
(a) 300 kilometres
(b) 450 kilometres
(c) 600 kilometres
(d) 800 kilometres
Answer: (c) 600 kilometres
Explanation: The Taimoor missile can strike targets up to 600 km away.
Q3. What feature of the Taimoor missile helps it evade hostile air and missile defence systems?
(a) High-altitude flight
(b) Low-altitude flight profile
(c) Stealth coating
(d) Hypersonic speed
Answer: (b) Low-altitude flight profile
Explanation: Flying at very low altitudes helps the missile avoid detection and interception by enemy defence systems.
Q4. Where was the successful flight test of the Taimoor missile announced from?
(a) Islamabad
(b) Karachi
(c) Lahore
(d) Rawalpindi
Answer: (d) Rawalpindi
Explanation: Rawalpindi, Pakistan’s key military headquarters city, issued the official statement.
Q5. What is the broader strategic significance of the Taimoor missile test for Pakistan?
(a) Enhances nuclear deterrence
(b) Demonstrates conventional strike capabilities and self-reliance
(c) Initiates a new arms race
(d) Focuses only on defensive systems
Answer: (b) Demonstrates conventional strike capabilities and self-reliance
Explanation: The test reflects Pakistan’s emphasis on strengthening indigenous defence and conventional deterrence amid regional tensions.
Import Restrictions Removed on Low Ash Metallurgical Coke for Steel Sector
Q1. Which raw material’s import restrictions were recently removed by the government to benefit the steel industry?
(a) Iron ore
(b) Low ash metallurgical coke
(c) Scrap metal
(d) Coal tar
Answer: (b) Low ash metallurgical coke
Explanation: The government removed import restrictions on low ash metallurgical coke, easing raw material availability for steelmakers.
Q2. What is the maximum ash content allowed in the low ash metallurgical coke category?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 18%
(d) 25%
Answer: (c) 18%
Explanation: Low ash metallurgical coke has an ash content below 18%, making it suitable for efficient steel production.
Q3. Which government body issued the notification removing the import restrictions?
(a) Ministry of Steel
(b) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (b) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
Explanation: The DGFT, operating under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, issued the notification allowing free imports.
Q4. Why is low ash metallurgical coke important for steel production?
(a) It is used as a decorative material
(b) It acts as a fuel and reducing agent, improving efficiency and reducing impurities
(c) It is used to cool the blast furnace
(d) It replaces iron ore completely
Answer: (b) It acts as a fuel and reducing agent, improving efficiency and reducing impurities
Explanation: Metallurgical coke is critical for blast furnace operations in steelmaking, with low ash content enhancing performance.
Q5. What was the earlier policy regarding imports of low ash metallurgical coke before this relaxation?
(a) Imports were completely banned indefinitely
(b) Restrictions were extended until June 30, 2026
(c) Imports were allowed without any restrictions
(d) Only exports were allowed
Answer: (b) Restrictions were extended until June 30, 2026
Explanation: DGFT had extended import restrictions from January 1 to June 30, 2026, but later reversed this decision to support supply needs.
German Chancellor Friedrich Merz’s First Official Visit to India
Q1. When is German Chancellor Friedrich Merz scheduled to visit India for his first official trip?
(a) January 5–6, 2026
(b) January 10–11, 2026
(c) January 12–13, 2026
(d) January 20–21, 2026
Answer: (c) January 12–13, 2026
Explanation: Chancellor Merz’s maiden official visit to India is scheduled for January 12–13, 2026.
Q2. Which Indian city will host Chancellor Merz’s official reception by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Bengaluru
Answer: (c) Ahmedabad
Explanation: PM Modi will receive Chancellor Merz in Ahmedabad, highlighting economic and cultural outreach.
Q3. What are the key sectors targeted for strengthening during the India–Germany strategic partnership in this visit?
(a) Agriculture and education only
(b) Trade, investment, defence, clean energy, and technology
(c) Tourism and media
(d) Textile and pharmaceuticals
Answer: (b) Trade, investment, defence, clean energy, and technology
Explanation: The visit focuses on enhancing cooperation in multiple strategic sectors including defence and clean energy.
Q4. Which city known as India’s technology and innovation hub will Chancellor Merz visit during his trip?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Pune
(d) Chennai
Answer: (b) Bengaluru
Explanation: Bengaluru is a major centre for technology, startups, and innovation, where German firms have a growing presence.
Q5. Since when have India and Germany maintained their strategic partnership?
(a) 1990
(b) 1995
(c) 2000
(d) 2010
Answer: (c) 2000
Explanation: India and Germany established their strategic partnership in the year 2000.
Uttar Pradesh Launches First Braille Library for Visually Impaired Learners
Q1. Where is Uttar Pradesh’s first dedicated Braille library for visually impaired persons located?
(a) Varanasi
(b) Lucknow
(c) Kanpur
(d) Noida
Answer: (b) Lucknow
Explanation: The Braille library is set up at Dr Shakuntala Mishra National Rehabilitation University in Lucknow.
Q2. How many Braille books does the library currently house?
(a) About 1,000
(b) About 2,500
(c) More than 4,000
(d) More than 10,000
Answer: (c) More than 4,000
Explanation: The library has over 4,000 books in Braille covering 54 academic courses.
Q3. Who inaugurated the Braille library at Dr Shakuntala Mishra National Rehabilitation University?
(a) Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath
(b) Vice-Chancellor Acharya Sanjay Singh
(c) Union Education Minister
(d) Governor of Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (b) Vice-Chancellor Acharya Sanjay Singh
Explanation: The Vice-Chancellor inaugurated the library, calling it a milestone for inclusive education.
Q4. The Braille books in the library are printed using which facility?
(a) External publishers
(b) Online digital platform
(c) The university’s in-house Braille press
(d) Private printing presses in Delhi
Answer: (c) The university’s in-house Braille press
Explanation: Books are printed internally, ensuring quality and timely availability aligned with the National Education Policy.
Q5. What is one of the key goals emphasized during the library’s inauguration for visually impaired students?
(a) To promote sports activities
(b) To encourage self-reliance and skill development through computer training
(c) To limit access to only university students
(d) To focus solely on recreational reading
Answer: (b) To encourage self-reliance and skill development through computer training
Explanation: The Vice-Chancellor urged expanding computer training to help students stay connected with mainstream education and jobs.
India Inaugurates World’s Second National Environmental Standard Laboratory
Q1. Where is India’s National Environmental Standard Laboratory located?
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Hyderabad
Answer: (b) New Delhi
Explanation: The laboratory is established at the CSIR–National Physical Laboratory in New Delhi.
Q2. Which country was the first to host a National Environmental Standard Laboratory before India?
(a) United States
(b) Germany
(c) United Kingdom
(d) Japan
Answer: (c) United Kingdom
Explanation: Until now, only the United Kingdom had a comparable environmental standard laboratory.
Q3. Why is the new laboratory important for India’s air pollution monitoring?
(a) It will reduce air pollution directly
(b) It provides India-specific testing and calibration for monitoring instruments
(c) It exports pollution monitoring equipment only
(d) It replaces all imported instruments immediately
Answer: (b) It provides India-specific testing and calibration for monitoring instruments
Explanation: The lab ensures instruments work accurately under India’s diverse climatic conditions.
Q4. How will the laboratory help India’s domestic manufacturing?
(a) By importing more instruments
(b) By supporting domestic testing and certification, reducing dependence on foreign agencies
(c) By banning exports
(d) By increasing prices of equipment
Answer: (b) By supporting domestic testing and certification, reducing dependence on foreign agencies
Explanation: The lab boosts India’s capability to manufacture and certify pollution monitoring equipment indigenously.
Q5. Which national programme will benefit directly from improved air quality data due to this lab?
(a) Swachh Bharat Mission
(b) National Solar Mission
(c) National Clean Air Programme
(d) Make in India
Answer: (c) National Clean Air Programme
Explanation: The lab’s accurate data supports enforcement and assessment under the National Clean Air Programme.
Delcy Rodriguez Sworn In as Venezuela’s New President Amid Geopolitical Tensions
Q1. Who was sworn in as Venezuela’s new president following the capture of Nicolas Maduro?
(a) Edmundo Gonzalez
(b) Hugo Chavez
(c) Delcy Rodriguez
(d) Diosdado Cabello
Answer: (c) Delcy Rodriguez
Explanation: Delcy Rodriguez became Venezuela’s president after US forces captured former leader Nicolas Maduro.
Q2. What political ideology is central to Venezuela’s Bolivarian revolution?
(a) Capitalism and free markets
(b) Anti-imperialism and state control over key sectors
(c) Liberal democracy
(d) Globalisation and open borders
Answer: (b) Anti-imperialism and state control over key sectors
Explanation: The Bolivarian revolution focuses on resisting foreign influence, especially from the US, with state control of key industries like oil.
Q3. Which countries’ operatives has the US demanded Venezuela expel as part of its cooperation conditions?
(a) Russia and China
(b) Iran and Cuba
(c) Brazil and Argentina
(d) Mexico and Canada
Answer: (b) Iran and Cuba
Explanation: The US has demanded the expulsion of Iranian and Cuban operatives from Venezuela.
Q4. Who controls Venezuela’s armed forces, police, and intelligence agencies, influencing internal power dynamics?
(a) Donald Trump
(b) Edmundo Gonzalez
(c) Diosdado Cabello and Vladimir Padrino Lopez
(d) Jitendra Singh
Answer: (c) Diosdado Cabello and Vladimir Padrino Lopez
Explanation: These key figures hold significant control over Venezuela’s security apparatus.
Q5. What is a major economic challenge faced by Delcy Rodriguez’s presidency?
(a) Lack of natural resources
(b) US sanctions blocking oil exports and affecting the economy
(c) Overreliance on tourism
(d) Foreign investment surges
Answer: (b) US sanctions blocking oil exports and affecting the economy
Explanation: US sanctions heavily impact Venezuela’s oil exports, a critical part of its economy.
SBI to Facilitate Rupee Trade Settlements Between India and Israel
Q1. Which Indian bank is set to enable rupee settlement for trade between India and Israel?
(a) Punjab National Bank
(b) State Bank of India
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) HDFC Bank
Answer: (b) State Bank of India
Explanation: SBI is the only Indian bank with a branch in Israel and is facilitating INR-based trade settlements.
Q2. What mechanism allows Israeli exporters and importers to make payments in Indian rupees?
(a) Foreign Exchange Account
(b) Special Rupee Vostro Account
(c) International Dollar Account
(d) Euro Clearing Account
Answer: (b) Special Rupee Vostro Account
Explanation: Payments are processed through a Special Rupee Vostro Account linked to trade invoices.
Q3. How does rupee trade settlement benefit India-Israel economic relations?
(a) It reduces dependence on third-country currencies like the US dollar
(b) It eliminates all tariffs immediately
(c) It requires all transactions to be made in US dollars
(d) It removes the need for banking intermediaries
Answer: (a) It reduces dependence on third-country currencies like the US dollar
Explanation: Using INR reduces reliance on foreign currencies and promotes local currency use.
Q4. What other initiative is SBI supporting besides trade finance in Israel?
(a) Cryptocurrency trading
(b) Opening NRI accounts and remittance services for Indian workers in Israel
(c) Stock market investments in Israel
(d) Real estate purchases
Answer: (b) Opening NRI accounts and remittance services for Indian workers in Israel
Explanation: SBI supports the Indian diaspora by facilitating remittances and NRI accounts.
Q5. What broader trade agreement is India pursuing with Israel alongside rupee trade settlements?
(a) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
(b) India-European Union Trade Pact
(c) Comprehensive Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
(d) India-China Trade Agreement
Answer: (c) Comprehensive Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
Explanation: India and Israel are negotiating a comprehensive FTA along with a Bilateral Investment Treaty.
UAE’s First Gene Therapy Injection for Inherited Blood Disorders
Q1. What is the name of the gene therapy administered in Abu Dhabi for inherited blood disorders?
(a) Hemocure
(b) CASGEVY
(c) GeneCure
(d) Thalassemex
Answer: (b) CASGEVY
Explanation: CASGEVY is the gene therapy using CRISPR-Cas9 technology for inherited blood disorders like sickle cell disease and beta thalassemia.
Q2. Which gene-editing technology does CASGEVY use to correct genetic faults?
(a) TALEN
(b) ZFN
(c) CRISPR-Cas9
(d) RNA interference
Answer: (c) CRISPR-Cas9
Explanation: CASGEVY employs CRISPR-Cas9, molecular scissors that target specific DNA sequences to edit faulty genes.
Q3. What type of therapy is CASGEVY considered, based on the use of the patient’s own cells?
(a) Allogeneic therapy
(b) Autologous therapy
(c) Xenogeneic therapy
(d) Synthetic therapy
Answer: (b) Autologous therapy
Explanation: CASGEVY uses the patient’s own stem cells to reduce immune rejection risks.
Q4. Which two inherited blood disorders are targeted by the CASGEVY gene therapy?
(a) Leukemia and lymphoma
(b) Sickle cell disease and beta thalassemia
(c) Hemophilia and anemia
(d) Malaria and dengue
Answer: (b) Sickle cell disease and beta thalassemia
Explanation: CASGEVY focuses on correcting genetic causes of sickle cell disease and beta thalassemia.
Q5. What is a key benefit of gene therapy like CASGEVY compared to traditional supportive care?
(a) It completely cures cancer
(b) It targets the root genetic cause instead of managing symptoms
(c) It requires no medical supervision
(d) It works for all diseases without exceptions
Answer: (b) It targets the root genetic cause instead of managing symptoms
Explanation: Gene therapy aims to correct the genetic fault, reducing dependency on transfusions and hospital visits.
MCQs on FDA Approval of Mitapivat (Aqvesme) for Thalassemia Anaemia
Q1. What is the brand name of mitapivat, the first FDA-approved oral treatment for anaemia in adults with thalassemia?
(a) Thalocure
(b) Aqvesme
(c) Hemoboost
(d) Enerthal
Answer: (b) Aqvesme
Explanation: Mitapivat is marketed as Aqvesme and is approved by the FDA for anaemia in alpha and beta thalassemia.
Q2. Mitapivat is approved to treat anaemia in which patient group?
(a) Children with beta-thalassemia only
(b) Adults with alpha- or beta-thalassemia
(c) All age groups with sickle cell disease
(d) Only transfusion-dependent thalassemia patients
Answer: (b) Adults with alpha- or beta-thalassemia
Explanation: Approval is for adults with either alpha or beta thalassemia causing anaemia.
Q3. What is the main function of mitapivat in red blood cells?
(a) Increases iron absorption
(b) Activates pyruvate kinase to improve cellular energy
(c) Suppresses immune response
(d) Promotes haemoglobin breakdown
Answer: (b) Activates pyruvate kinase to improve cellular energy
Explanation: Mitapivat improves red blood cell energy balance by activating pyruvate kinase, helping them survive longer.
Q4. What major risk is associated with repeated blood transfusions in thalassemia patients?
(a) Iron overload leading to organ damage
(b) Viral infections only
(c) Increased haemoglobin production
(d) Autoimmune response
Answer: (a) Iron overload leading to organ damage
Explanation: Repeated transfusions can cause iron buildup, damaging organs and requiring chelation therapy.
Q5. Which clinical trials provided evidence for FDA approval of mitapivat?
(a) ENERGIZE and ENERGIZE-T
(b) THAL-1 and THAL-2
(c) PHOENIX and VICTORY
(d) ALPHA and BETA trials
Answer: (a) ENERGIZE and ENERGIZE-T
Explanation: Phase 3 trials ENERGIZE and ENERGIZE-T demonstrated the drug’s efficacy and safety.
Q6. What safety monitoring is required for patients taking Aqvesme?
(a) Weekly MRI scans
(b) Liver function tests due to risk of hepatocellular injury
(c) No special monitoring needed
(d) Bone marrow biopsy every month
Answer: (b) Liver function tests due to risk of hepatocellular injury
Explanation: Aqvesme carries a boxed warning requiring liver function testing before and during early treatment.
31st Critics Choice Awards 2026: Important MCQs for Competitive Exams
Q1. Which film won the “Best Picture” award at the 31st Critics Choice Awards in 2026?
(a) Sinners
(b) One Battle After Another
(c) Avatar: Fire and Ash
(d) The Naked Gun
Answer: (b) One Battle After Another
Explanation: “One Battle After Another” won the Best Picture award, also securing Best Director, making it the biggest winner of the night.
Q2. Which new award categories were introduced at the 31st Critics Choice Awards in 2026?
(a) Best Casting and Ensemble, Variety Series, Stunt Design, and Sound
(b) Best Visual Effects, Best Editing, Best Score, and Best Song
(c) Best Foreign Language Film, Best Comedy, Best Drama Series, and Best Talk Show
(d) Best Actor, Best Actress, Best Supporting Actor, and Best Supporting Actress
Answer: (a) Best Casting and Ensemble, Variety Series, Stunt Design, and Sound
Explanation: The 2026 Critics Choice Awards introduced these new categories reflecting evolving industry priorities.
Q3. Which television series won the “Best Drama Series” award?
(a) Adolescence
(b) The Pitt
(c) Pluribus
(d) Severance
Answer: (b) The Pitt
Explanation: “The Pitt” won Best Drama Series, highlighting its critical acclaim in television.
Q4. Which film won the “Best Animated Feature” and “Best Song” for “Golden”?
(a) KPop Demon Hunters
(b) Avatar: Fire and Ash
(c) The Naked Gun
(d) One Battle After Another
Answer: (a) KPop Demon Hunters
Explanation: “KPop Demon Hunters” won both Best Animated Feature and Best Song, showcasing its success in animation and music.
Q5. Who won the “Best Actor” award for their role in “Marty Supreme”?
(a) Jacob Elordi
(b) Timothée Chalamet
(c) Ryan Coogler
(d) Seth Rogen
Answer: (b) Timothée Chalamet
Explanation: Timothée Chalamet won Best Actor for his performance in “Marty Supreme,” a major highlight of the ceremony.
India’s Civil Aviation Growth and International Connectivity: Important MCQs for Competitive Exams
Q1. How many aircraft are Indian carriers expected to induct annually for the next 10–15 years according to the civil aviation minister?
(a) Around 50 aircraft
(b) Around 70 aircraft
(c) Around 100 aircraft
(d) Around 150 aircraft
Answer: (c) Around 100 aircraft
Explanation: The civil aviation minister projected that Indian carriers will induct about 100 aircraft annually for the next 10–15 years, driven by large existing orders.
Q2. What was the total number of aircraft in India’s commercial fleet as stated by the minister?
(a) 750 aircraft
(b) 843 aircraft
(c) 900 aircraft
(d) 1000 aircraft
Answer: (b) 843 aircraft
Explanation: India’s commercial fleet currently stands at 843 aircraft, with rapid induction planned in the coming years.
Q3. Which strategy is being emphasized to boost international flights from India’s new mega airports?
(a) Increasing bilateral air service agreements
(b) Building direct hub-to-hub flying connections
(c) Expanding cargo operations only
(d) Outsourcing flights to foreign carriers
Answer: (b) Building direct hub-to-hub flying connections
Explanation: The government is focusing on enabling Indian airports and airlines to build direct hub-to-hub connectivity rather than relying mainly on bilateral agreements.
Q4. Why are wide-body aircraft important for Indian carriers according to the minister?
(a) For domestic short-haul flights
(b) To reduce fuel consumption
(c) To run more non-stop long-haul routes and create hubs
(d) For military purposes
Answer: (c) To run more non-stop long-haul routes and create hubs
Explanation: Wide-body aircraft are crucial for Indian carriers to operate long-haul non-stop flights and develop international hubs, reducing dependence on foreign transit points.
Q5. Which airport recently received its first commercial validation flight as part of India’s aviation expansion?
(a) Bhogapuram Airport
(b) Indira Gandhi International Airport
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport
(d) Kempegowda International Airport
Answer: (a) Bhogapuram Airport
Explanation: Bhogapuram Airport recently had its first commercial validation flight by Air India, ahead of its expected operational launch.
Specialised Training Programme in Cancer Care for BIMSTEC Countries
Q1. Where was the second phase of the Specialised Training Programme in Cancer Care for BIMSTEC countries launched?
(a) Tata Memorial Centre, Mumbai
(b) All India Institute of Medical Sciences, Delhi
(c) Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital and Research Centre, Visakhapatnam
(d) Rajiv Gandhi Cancer Institute, New Delhi
Answer: (c) Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital and Research Centre, Visakhapatnam
Explanation: The second phase of the cancer care training programme was launched at the Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital and Research Centre in Visakhapatnam.
Q2. Which organisation is implementing the Specialised Training Programme in Cancer Care for BIMSTEC countries?
(a) Indian Council of Medical Research
(b) Tata Memorial Centre
(c) World Health Organization
(d) AIIMS
Answer: (b) Tata Memorial Centre
Explanation: Tata Memorial Centre, India’s premier oncology institution, is implementing the training programme with support from the Ministry of External Affairs.
Q3. What is the primary objective of the cancer care training programme for BIMSTEC countries?
(a) To build nuclear medicine capabilities
(b) To enhance cancer diagnosis, treatment, and research skills
(c) To promote Ayurveda-based cancer cures
(d) To provide financial aid to cancer patients
Answer: (b) To enhance cancer diagnosis, treatment, and research skills
Explanation: The programme aims to strengthen oncology services by improving diagnosis, treatment, and research capabilities among healthcare professionals in BIMSTEC nations.
Q4. BIMSTEC stands for which of the following?
(a) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
(b) Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Economic Community
(c) Bay of Bengal International Medical and Scientific Technical Economic Council
(d) Basic Initiative for Medical and Scientific Technical Economic Cooperation
Answer: (a) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
Explanation: BIMSTEC is a regional grouping of seven countries focused on multi-sectoral technical and economic cooperation around the Bay of Bengal.
Q5. At which BIMSTEC summit was this specialised cancer care training initiative announced?
(a) 4th BIMSTEC Summit
(b) 5th BIMSTEC Summit
(c) 6th BIMSTEC Summit
(d) 7th BIMSTEC Summit
Answer: (c) 6th BIMSTEC Summit
Explanation: The initiative was announced by the Prime Minister of India at the 6th BIMSTEC Summit as part of regional health cooperation efforts.
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